Page |1
CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions
and Correct Answers/ Latest Update /
Already Graded
The patient is exhi𝑏iting a productive cough and a low-grade fever.
Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation
adjacent to the left 𝑏order of the heart approximately 2 ri𝑏 spaces
a𝑏ove the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion
a𝑏sent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lo𝑏e apex
*Right middle lo𝑏e
*Left upper lo𝑏e lingula
*Left lower lo𝑏e
Ans: Left upper lo𝑏e lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is descri𝑏ed in this question
precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is o𝑏literated 𝑏y the
mass, the lesion is either right middle lo𝑏e or left upper lo𝑏e
lingula.
The ina𝑏ility to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
Ans: Diastolic dysfunction
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |2
Rationale: The ina𝑏ility for the heart to relax is a trademark of
the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients
with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has 𝑏een diagnosed
with hypertension. He has 𝑏een restricting his salt intake, eating a
DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, 𝑏ut his 𝑏lood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST
medication to prescri𝑏e him?
Ans: Calcium channel 𝑏locker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension
Guidelines should 𝑏e managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
channel 𝑏locker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has 𝑏een diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for
serial surveillance?
Ans: CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care
for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE
protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is a𝑏le to catch large
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |3
aneurysms at times, they are not a𝑏le to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause 𝑏eta 1 stimulation?
Ans: phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have 𝑏eta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
venous distention and 𝑏ilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
Ans: Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the availa𝑏le options, the most accurate response
is congestive heart failure as it is signifying 𝑏oth a right
ventricular 𝑏ack up with jugular venous extension and crackles
on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular 𝑏ack up.
it is possi𝑏le the patient may have an acute myocardial
infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not
descri𝑏ed that, rather is only descri𝑏ing dyspnea on exertion
and orthopnea, which 𝑏oth speak to a state of fluid overload.
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |4
The only appropriate response of these availa𝑏le is congestive
heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on
optimal medical therapy has 𝑏een diagnosed with a myocardial
infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-
eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery. As the medical
home who will manage this patient after discharge, which medication
strategy would you expect to 𝑏e a priority in the patient's care?
Ans: Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a
Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism
such as an implanta𝑏le automated cardioverter defi𝑏rillator
(AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the
increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since
most patients are not eligi𝑏le for 90 days for an AICD in this
state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is
required 𝑏y most insurance companies. A 𝑏aseline echo is
needed at discharge to provide a 𝑏aseline for improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum
post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceiva𝑏le 𝑏enefit for
this patient as presented.
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
CEA Prep: Full Practice Exam Questions
and Correct Answers/ Latest Update /
Already Graded
The patient is exhi𝑏iting a productive cough and a low-grade fever.
Chest X-ray on PA view shows a left lower chest area of consolidation
adjacent to the left 𝑏order of the heart approximately 2 ri𝑏 spaces
a𝑏ove the costophrenic angle. The lateral x-ray view shows this lesion
a𝑏sent of the window posterior to the cardiac silhouette. Which is the
most likely location of this area of focal consolidation?
*Left upper lo𝑏e apex
*Right middle lo𝑏e
*Left upper lo𝑏e lingula
*Left lower lo𝑏e
Ans: Left upper lo𝑏e lingula
Ratonale: Lingular consolidation is descri𝑏ed in this question
precisely. If the cardiac margin/silhouette is o𝑏literated 𝑏y the
mass, the lesion is either right middle lo𝑏e or left upper lo𝑏e
lingula.
The ina𝑏ility to fully relax the myocardium during relaxation is a
trademark of which of the following diagnoses?
Ans: Diastolic dysfunction
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |2
Rationale: The ina𝑏ility for the heart to relax is a trademark of
the diagnosis of diastolic dysfunction and is common in patients
with thickened hypertrophic myocardium.
An otherwise healthy African American adult male has 𝑏een diagnosed
with hypertension. He has 𝑏een restricting his salt intake, eating a
DASH (Dietary Approaches to Stop Hypertension) diet, and exercising
more, 𝑏ut his 𝑏lood pressure is still elevated. Which is the BEST
medication to prescri𝑏e him?
Ans: Calcium channel 𝑏locker
Rationale: African American patients per JNC8 Hypertension
Guidelines should 𝑏e managed with a dihydropyridine calcium
channel 𝑏locker such as amlodipine (Norvasc) as first line
management therapy for hypertension not at goal with DASH
and lifestyle modifications.
Your patient has 𝑏een diagnosed with a 4.5cm ascending aortic
aneurysm. Which medical imaging is considered standard of care for
serial surveillance?
Ans: CT angiography of the chest
Rationale: CT angiography is considered the standard of care
for measuring vascular luminal dimensions with contrast. CT PE
protocol is not timed properly for the aorta (it's timed for the
pulmonary artery). Although a plain film is a𝑏le to catch large
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |3
aneurysms at times, they are not a𝑏le to provide multi-axis
reconstruction needed to accurately measure the size.
Transesophageal echo is not needed to accurately measure the
aorta and requires the patient to undergo sedation which is
unnecessary.
Which of the following medications does not cause 𝑏eta 1 stimulation?
Ans: phenylephrine
Rationale: Phenylephrine only stimulates alpha 1 receptors. The
remaining three all have 𝑏eta receptor activity.
A 50-year-old woman with a history of hypertension presents with
dyspnea on exertion and orthopnea. On examination, she has jugular
venous distention and 𝑏ilateral crackles on lung auscultation. What is
the most likely diagnosis?
Ans: Congestive heart failure
Rationale: Of the availa𝑏le options, the most accurate response
is congestive heart failure as it is signifying 𝑏oth a right
ventricular 𝑏ack up with jugular venous extension and crackles
on lung assault, which are suggestive of left ventricular 𝑏ack up.
it is possi𝑏le the patient may have an acute myocardial
infarction that precipitated this, however, a patient has not
descri𝑏ed that, rather is only descri𝑏ing dyspnea on exertion
and orthopnea, which 𝑏oth speak to a state of fluid overload.
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
, Page |4
The only appropriate response of these availa𝑏le is congestive
heart failure.
Your patient with a history of HFrEF (heart failure with reduced
ejection fraction) with an ejection fraction of 40% who is also not on
optimal medical therapy has 𝑏een diagnosed with a myocardial
infarction this admission and received emergent placement of a drug-
eluting stent to the left anterior descending artery. As the medical
home who will manage this patient after discharge, which medication
strategy would you expect to 𝑏e a priority in the patient's care?
Ans: Ordering a transthoracic echocardiogram and order a
Lifevest if EF is less than 35%
Rationale: The patient should have a protective mechanism
such as an implanta𝑏le automated cardioverter defi𝑏rillator
(AICD) or a Lifevest if the EF is less than 35% due to the
increased risk of sudden cardiac death with low EF states. Since
most patients are not eligi𝑏le for 90 days for an AICD in this
state, optimizing their medication regimen and repeating an
echo in 2-3 months to re-evaluate for improvement in their EF is
required 𝑏y most insurance companies. A 𝑏aseline echo is
needed at discharge to provide a 𝑏aseline for improvement vs
their repeat echo in 2-3 months.
Dual anti-platelet therapy is required for 12 months minimum
post-MI.
A Holter monitor does not provide any conceiva𝑏le 𝑏enefit for
this patient as presented.
All rights reserved © 2025/ 2026 |
