APEA 3P Predictor Exam 200 Questions
With Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
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1. A 52-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue and decreased libido.
Laboratory testing reveals low serum testosterone levels on two separate
morning samples. What is the most appropriate next step in management
Initiate testosterone replacement therapy ✔
Rationale: Confirmed hypogonadism with consistent low morning levels
warrants treatment. Key concept: diagnosis requires two separate low
testosterone levels before therapy.
2. A 34-year-old female reports anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. Her TSH
is suppressed and free T4 is elevated. What is the first-line treatment
Start a beta-blocker ✔
Rationale: Symptom control in hyperthyroidism begins with beta-blockers
to manage adrenergic symptoms before definitive therapy.
3. A 65-year-old patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which
laboratory value must be monitored closely after initiation
Serum potassium ✔
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia. Key concept: monitor
renal function and potassium after starting therapy.
4. A 28-year-old presents with dysuria and frequency. Urinalysis shows
positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. What is the most likely diagnosis
Acute uncomplicated cystitis ✔
, Rationale: Positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase indicate bacterial
infection, commonly E. coli.
5. A patient with type 2 diabetes has an HbA1c of 9.2% despite metformin
therapy. What is the next best step
Add a second antihyperglycemic agent ✔
Rationale: When A1c >9%, combination therapy is recommended. Key
concept: escalate therapy when monotherapy fails.
6. A 45-year-old smoker presents with chronic cough and sputum production
for 3 months each year for 2 consecutive years. Diagnosis
Chronic bronchitis ✔
Rationale: Defined by productive cough ≥3 months/year for 2 years.
7. A patient presents with sudden unilateral leg swelling and pain. What is the
initial diagnostic test
Doppler ultrasound ✔
Rationale: First-line test for deep vein thrombosis is compression
ultrasonography.
8. A 60-year-old male reports chest pain relieved by rest. What is the most
likely diagnosis
Stable angina ✔
Rationale: Predictable chest pain with exertion relieved by rest defines
stable angina.
9. A child presents with barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Diagnosis
Croup ✔
Rationale: Classic symptoms include barking cough and stridor, usually
viral.
10.A 70-year-old patient presents with resting tremor, rigidity, and
bradykinesia. Diagnosis
Parkinson’s disease ✔
Rationale: Triad includes tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia.
, 11.A patient with GERD reports symptoms despite PPI therapy. Next step
Increase PPI dose ✔
Rationale: Refractory GERD requires dose escalation before further
evaluation.
12.A 30-year-old presents with sudden severe headache described as worst of
life. Diagnosis
Subarachnoid hemorrhage ✔
Rationale: Thunderclap headache is hallmark.
13.A patient has LDL of 190 mg/dL. What is recommended
High-intensity statin therapy ✔
Rationale: LDL ≥190 requires aggressive statin therapy.
14.A diabetic patient presents with numbness in feet. Diagnosis
Peripheral neuropathy ✔
Rationale: Common complication of chronic hyperglycemia.
15.A 22-year-old presents with fever, sore throat, and posterior cervical
lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis
Infectious mononucleosis ✔
Rationale: Key signs include posterior lymphadenopathy.
16.A patient presents with wheezing and reversible airflow obstruction.
Diagnosis
Asthma ✔
Rationale: Characterized by reversible bronchoconstriction.
17.A patient with anemia has low MCV. Diagnosis
Iron deficiency anemia ✔
Rationale: Microcytic anemia commonly due to iron deficiency.
18.A 50-year-old presents with elevated PSA. Next step
Prostate biopsy ✔
Rationale: Elevated PSA requires definitive diagnosis via biopsy.
With Correct Answers (Verified
Answers) Plus Rationales 2026 Q&A |
Instant Download Pdf A+ Grade
Guarantee Verified By Professionals
1. A 52-year-old male presents with persistent fatigue and decreased libido.
Laboratory testing reveals low serum testosterone levels on two separate
morning samples. What is the most appropriate next step in management
Initiate testosterone replacement therapy ✔
Rationale: Confirmed hypogonadism with consistent low morning levels
warrants treatment. Key concept: diagnosis requires two separate low
testosterone levels before therapy.
2. A 34-year-old female reports anxiety, palpitations, and weight loss. Her TSH
is suppressed and free T4 is elevated. What is the first-line treatment
Start a beta-blocker ✔
Rationale: Symptom control in hyperthyroidism begins with beta-blockers
to manage adrenergic symptoms before definitive therapy.
3. A 65-year-old patient with hypertension is started on lisinopril. Which
laboratory value must be monitored closely after initiation
Serum potassium ✔
Rationale: ACE inhibitors can cause hyperkalemia. Key concept: monitor
renal function and potassium after starting therapy.
4. A 28-year-old presents with dysuria and frequency. Urinalysis shows
positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. What is the most likely diagnosis
Acute uncomplicated cystitis ✔
, Rationale: Positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase indicate bacterial
infection, commonly E. coli.
5. A patient with type 2 diabetes has an HbA1c of 9.2% despite metformin
therapy. What is the next best step
Add a second antihyperglycemic agent ✔
Rationale: When A1c >9%, combination therapy is recommended. Key
concept: escalate therapy when monotherapy fails.
6. A 45-year-old smoker presents with chronic cough and sputum production
for 3 months each year for 2 consecutive years. Diagnosis
Chronic bronchitis ✔
Rationale: Defined by productive cough ≥3 months/year for 2 years.
7. A patient presents with sudden unilateral leg swelling and pain. What is the
initial diagnostic test
Doppler ultrasound ✔
Rationale: First-line test for deep vein thrombosis is compression
ultrasonography.
8. A 60-year-old male reports chest pain relieved by rest. What is the most
likely diagnosis
Stable angina ✔
Rationale: Predictable chest pain with exertion relieved by rest defines
stable angina.
9. A child presents with barking cough and inspiratory stridor. Diagnosis
Croup ✔
Rationale: Classic symptoms include barking cough and stridor, usually
viral.
10.A 70-year-old patient presents with resting tremor, rigidity, and
bradykinesia. Diagnosis
Parkinson’s disease ✔
Rationale: Triad includes tremor, rigidity, bradykinesia.
, 11.A patient with GERD reports symptoms despite PPI therapy. Next step
Increase PPI dose ✔
Rationale: Refractory GERD requires dose escalation before further
evaluation.
12.A 30-year-old presents with sudden severe headache described as worst of
life. Diagnosis
Subarachnoid hemorrhage ✔
Rationale: Thunderclap headache is hallmark.
13.A patient has LDL of 190 mg/dL. What is recommended
High-intensity statin therapy ✔
Rationale: LDL ≥190 requires aggressive statin therapy.
14.A diabetic patient presents with numbness in feet. Diagnosis
Peripheral neuropathy ✔
Rationale: Common complication of chronic hyperglycemia.
15.A 22-year-old presents with fever, sore throat, and posterior cervical
lymphadenopathy. Diagnosis
Infectious mononucleosis ✔
Rationale: Key signs include posterior lymphadenopathy.
16.A patient presents with wheezing and reversible airflow obstruction.
Diagnosis
Asthma ✔
Rationale: Characterized by reversible bronchoconstriction.
17.A patient with anemia has low MCV. Diagnosis
Iron deficiency anemia ✔
Rationale: Microcytic anemia commonly due to iron deficiency.
18.A 50-year-old presents with elevated PSA. Next step
Prostate biopsy ✔
Rationale: Elevated PSA requires definitive diagnosis via biopsy.
