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ADVANCED NURSING PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 WITH CORRECT ANSWERS,RATIONALES AND WHY THE OTHERS ARE NOT CORRECT NEWEST 2026 EXAM VERIFIED

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ADVANCED NURSING PHARMACOLOGY EXAM 2 WITH CORRECT ANSWERS,RATIONALES AND WHY THE OTHERS ARE NOT CORRECT NEWEST 2026 EXAM VERIFIED

Institution
NURS 5334
Course
NURS 5334

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Page 1 of 48


ADVANCED NURSING PHARMACOLOGY EXAM
2 WITH CORRECT ANSWERS,RATIONALES AND
WHY THE OTHERS ARE NOT CORRECT NEWEST
2026 EXAM VERIFIED




What is the minimum bactericidal concentration (MBC)?


a. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to suppress bacterial
growth completely
b. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to reduce the number of
bacterial colonies by 99.9%
c. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to produce effects
d. The lowest dose of an antibiotic needed to eradicate bacteria
b. The lowest concentration of an antibiotic needed to reduce the number of bacterial
colonies by 99.9%


The MBC is the lowest concentration of drug that produces a 99.9% decline in the
number of bacterial colonies (indicating bacterial kill). The lowest antibiotic
concentration needed to suppress bacterial growth or to produce effects and the
lowest antibiotic dose needed to eradicate bacteria are incorrect descriptions of
MBC.
A patient has acquired an infection while in the hospital. The nurse identifies
this type of infection as what?


a. Superinfection

, Page 2 of 48


b. Suprainfection
c. Nosocomial infection
d. Resistant infection
c. Nosocomial infection
A nurse should recognize that antibiotic prophylaxis is appropriate in patients
with which medical conditions? (Select all that apply.)
a. Aortic valve replacement
b. Ruptured appendix
c. Bronchitis
d. Neutropenia
e. Chickenpox
A, D


Antibiotic prophylaxis is appropriate and effective in certain situations. These include
patients who have prosthetic valves and are at risk for bacterial endocarditis. The
use of antibiotics in "dirty" surgeries, such as those for ruptured organs, is
considered treatment, not prophylaxis. Severe neutropenia can put patients at risk
for severe infection, and antibiotics can reduce infections but may encourage fungal
invasion. Antibiotics are not prescribed preventively for bronchitis or chickenpox.
Thirty minutes after receiving an intramuscular (IM) injection of penicillin G
[Pfizerpen], a patient reports itching and redness at the injection site. Which
action should the nurse take first?


a. Elevate the lower legs.
b. Place an ice pack on the site.
c. Make sure the patient stays calm.
d. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.
d. Administer subcutaneous epinephrine.


Itching and redness at the IM injection site indicate an allergy to penicillin. The
primary treatment is epinephrine (subcutaneous, IM, or IV) plus respiratory support.
Elevation, ice packs, and calming the patient are done once epinephrine has been
administered.

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A patient is receiving penicillin G [Bicillin C-R]. Which assessment should the
nurse monitor as an indicator of an undesired effect?


a. Cardiac rhythm
b. Serum sodium level
c. Lung sounds
d. Red blood cell (RBC) count
a. Cardiac rhythm


Penicillin G in high IV doses may cause hyperkalemia, which can result in
dysrhythmias or cardiac arrest. Hypernatremia occurs with high IV doses of
ticarcillin. Lung sounds and the RBC count are unrelated to the administration of
penicillin G.
A nurse should teach a patient to observe for which side effects when taking
ampicillin?


a. Skin rash and loose stools
b. Reddened tongue and gums
c. Digit numbness and tingling
d. Bruising and petechiae
a. Skin rash and loose stools


Ampicillin's most common side effects are rash and diarrhea; both reactions occur
more frequently with ampicillin than with any other penicillin. Reddened tongue and
gums, digit numbness and tingling, and bruising and petechiae are not associated
side effects of ampicillin.
Both IV ampicillin/sulbactam [Unasyn] and gentamicin are ordered for a
patient. When administering these medications, the nurse will do what?


a. Ensure that separate IV solutions are used.
b. Use two different peripheral IV sites.
c. Administer the gentamicin first.
d. There are no necessary precautions.

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a. Ensure that separate IV solutions are used.


When penicillins are present in high concentrations, they interact chemically with
aminoglycosides, causing inactivation of the aminoglycosides. Therefore, penicillins
and aminoglycosides should not be mixed in the same IV solution. Rather, these
drugs should be administered separately. Two different peripheral IV sites are not
necessary. Administering the gentamicin first does not ensure separation of the two
medications.
Which instructions should a nurse provide to a patient who is to start taking
amoxicillin/clavulanate [Augmentin]?


a. "Take Augmentin once per day and only at bedtime."
b. "Augmentin may be taken with food or meals."
c. "Avoid taking Augmentin with grapefruit juice."
d. "Use a minimal amount of liquid to swallow the Augmentin."
b. "Augmentin may be taken with food or meals."


Amoxicillin/clavulanate is a broad-spectrum aminopenicillin that may be taken with
meals. Most other oral penicillins must be taken with a full glass of water 1 hour
before or 2 hours after meals. Taking oral penicillins only at bedtime, avoiding
grapefruit juice, and taking the drug with only minimal water are not necessary.
An immunocompromised patient who is receiving piperacillin/tazobactam
[Zosyn] develops oozing and bleeding from the gums. Which additional data
should the nurse determine?


a. Whether the patient has a fever above 100.5°F
b. Whether the patient reports any painful teeth
c. The most recent platelet count
d. The last time mouth care was given
c. The most recent platelet count


Piperacillin/tazobactam [Zosyn] is an extended-spectrum penicillin used primarily for
infections caused by Pseudomonas aeruginosa in immunocompromised hosts. It can
cause bleeding secondary to disrupting platelet function; therefore, the platelet count

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Institution
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Course
NURS 5334

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