Pharmacology Exam 3 Practice Questions
NCLEX PN style question set, 75 items
Part 1: Multiple Choice (Questions 1 to 40)
Q1. A nurse is teaching a client about omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor. Which statement
best describes how this medication works?
A. It neutralizes acid that is already present in the stomach.
B. It blocks the final step of acid production by inhibiting the gastric proton pump.
C. It coats the lining of the stomach to form a protective barrier.
D. It blocks histamine receptors on the stomach lining.
Q2. A client is prescribed omeprazole for gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which instruction
should the nurse include?
A. Take the capsule 30 to 60 minutes before the first meal of the day.
B. Take the capsule with an antacid for faster relief.
C. Crush and chew the capsule if it is hard to swallow.
D. Take the capsule at bedtime on a full stomach.
Q3. A client has taken a proton pump inhibitor daily for two years. Which laboratory value is
most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum magnesium
C. Serum chloride
D. Serum amylase
Q4. A nurse is reviewing famotidine with a client who has a duodenal ulcer. Which explanation
is correct?
A. Famotidine blocks histamine type 2 receptors on the stomach cells, which decreases acid
secretion.
B. Famotidine kills the bacteria that cause ulcers.
C. Famotidine increases the speed of stomach emptying.
D. Famotidine forms a gel that covers the ulcer.
Q5. A client is taking cimetidine, a histamine type 2 receptor blocker. Which finding should the
nurse report as a possible adverse effect of this drug?
A. Improved appetite
B. Confusion in an older adult
C. Decreased heartburn
D. A single loose stool
Page 1
,Q6. A nurse administers ondansetron to a client receiving chemotherapy. The nurse
understands that this drug prevents nausea by which action?
A. Blocking dopamine receptors in the bowel wall
B. Blocking serotonin type 3 receptors in the gut and the brainstem
C. Increasing gastric emptying
D. Neutralizing stomach acid
Q7. A client is prescribed intravenous ondansetron. Which baseline value is most important for
the nurse to review before giving the drug?
A. White blood cell count
B. The QT interval on the electrocardiogram
C. Blood glucose
D. Urine output
Q8. A nurse is preparing to give intravenous pantoprazole through a peripheral line that is also
running a continuous infusion of another medication. Which action is correct?
A. Add the pantoprazole to the existing infusion bag.
B. Give the pantoprazole through the same tubing without stopping the other drug.
C. Flush the line before and after the pantoprazole and do not mix it with other medications.
D. Give the pantoprazole rapidly to save time.
Q9. A client with an active upper gastrointestinal bleed has intravenous pantoprazole
prescribed. The nurse understands the main purpose of this drug in this situation is to:
A. Stop the bleeding immediately.
B. Raise the gastric pH to help stabilize a clot and reduce further bleeding.
C. Replace lost blood volume.
D. Relieve pain from the bleed.
Q10. A client has taken metoclopramide for several weeks. The nurse should report which
finding immediately?
A. Mild drowsiness
B. Involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Relief of nausea
Q11. Metoclopramide is prescribed for a client. Which condition in the client's history would
cause the nurse to question the order?
A. Diabetic gastroparesis
B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
C. Mechanical bowel obstruction
D. Nausea after surger
Page 2
,Q12. A nurse explains how morphine relieves pain. Which statement is accurate?
A. Morphine binds to opioid receptors in the central nervous system and changes the
perception of pain.
B. Morphine blocks prostaglandin production at the site of injury.
C. Morphine reduces inflammation around the nerve.
D. Morphine numbs the area by blocking sodium channels in the nerve.
Q13. A nurse is caring for four clients who each received an opioid one hour ago. Which client
should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who reports pain of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. A client with a respiratory rate of 8 and difficulty staying awake
C. A client who reports mild itching
D. A client who has not had a bowel movement in two days
Q14. A client is starting around the clock oxycodone for cancer pain. Which intervention should
the nurse plan to prevent a common adverse effect?
A. Restrict fluids
B. Start a stimulant laxative and a stool softener as prescribed
C. Limit physical activity
D. Provide a low fiber diet
Q15. A nurse teaches a client who takes acetaminophen for chronic joint pain. Which statement
by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. I should not take more than 4 grams in 24 hours from all sources.
B. I can take extra doses because it is sold without a prescription.
C. I should take it with my evening alcohol to help me relax.
D. Acetaminophen will reduce the swelling in my joints.
Q16. A client is admitted after taking a large amount of acetaminophen. The nurse anticipates
administering which antidote?
A. Naloxone
B. Vitamin K
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Flumazenil
Q17. A client asks how ibuprofen helps with arthritis pain. The nurse explains that nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drugs work by:
A. Blocking opioid receptors
B. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, which lowers prostaglandins
C. Increasing stomach acid
D. Blocking histamine
Page 3
, Q18. A nurse provides teaching about long term naproxen use. Which instruction is most
important to prevent a common serious adverse effect?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
B. Take the medication with food and report black or tarry stools.
C. Avoid drinking water with the dose.
D. Double the dose if pain returns quickly.
Q19. An NSAID is prescribed for several clients. For which client should the nurse question the
order?
A. A client with mild seasonal allergies
B. A client with chronic kidney disease and a rising creatinine
C. A client with a healed ankle sprain
D. A client with occasional tension headaches
Q20. A parent asks the nurse about giving aspirin to a 7 year old who has a fever and a viral
illness. What is the nurse's best response?
A. Aspirin is the best choice for children with a fever.
B. Aspirin can be given if the fever is high.
C. Aspirin should be avoided in children with a viral illness because of the risk of Reye
syndrome.
D. Aspirin should be given with milk to prevent stomach upset.
Q21. A client takes low dose aspirin daily to lower the risk of heart attack. Which statement
shows correct understanding?
A. Aspirin thins my blood by dissolving existing clots.
B. Aspirin makes my platelets less sticky, so I may bruise or bleed more easily.
C. I should stop the aspirin the day before any minor cut heals.
D. Aspirin will lower my blood pressure.
Q22. A client who takes high dose aspirin for arthritis reports ringing in the ears. The nurse
recognizes this as an early sign of:
A. An expected effect that needs no action
B. Salicylate toxicity
C. An ear infection
D. Low blood sugar
Page 4
NCLEX PN style question set, 75 items
Part 1: Multiple Choice (Questions 1 to 40)
Q1. A nurse is teaching a client about omeprazole, a proton pump inhibitor. Which statement
best describes how this medication works?
A. It neutralizes acid that is already present in the stomach.
B. It blocks the final step of acid production by inhibiting the gastric proton pump.
C. It coats the lining of the stomach to form a protective barrier.
D. It blocks histamine receptors on the stomach lining.
Q2. A client is prescribed omeprazole for gastroesophageal reflux disease. Which instruction
should the nurse include?
A. Take the capsule 30 to 60 minutes before the first meal of the day.
B. Take the capsule with an antacid for faster relief.
C. Crush and chew the capsule if it is hard to swallow.
D. Take the capsule at bedtime on a full stomach.
Q3. A client has taken a proton pump inhibitor daily for two years. Which laboratory value is
most important for the nurse to monitor?
A. Serum sodium
B. Serum magnesium
C. Serum chloride
D. Serum amylase
Q4. A nurse is reviewing famotidine with a client who has a duodenal ulcer. Which explanation
is correct?
A. Famotidine blocks histamine type 2 receptors on the stomach cells, which decreases acid
secretion.
B. Famotidine kills the bacteria that cause ulcers.
C. Famotidine increases the speed of stomach emptying.
D. Famotidine forms a gel that covers the ulcer.
Q5. A client is taking cimetidine, a histamine type 2 receptor blocker. Which finding should the
nurse report as a possible adverse effect of this drug?
A. Improved appetite
B. Confusion in an older adult
C. Decreased heartburn
D. A single loose stool
Page 1
,Q6. A nurse administers ondansetron to a client receiving chemotherapy. The nurse
understands that this drug prevents nausea by which action?
A. Blocking dopamine receptors in the bowel wall
B. Blocking serotonin type 3 receptors in the gut and the brainstem
C. Increasing gastric emptying
D. Neutralizing stomach acid
Q7. A client is prescribed intravenous ondansetron. Which baseline value is most important for
the nurse to review before giving the drug?
A. White blood cell count
B. The QT interval on the electrocardiogram
C. Blood glucose
D. Urine output
Q8. A nurse is preparing to give intravenous pantoprazole through a peripheral line that is also
running a continuous infusion of another medication. Which action is correct?
A. Add the pantoprazole to the existing infusion bag.
B. Give the pantoprazole through the same tubing without stopping the other drug.
C. Flush the line before and after the pantoprazole and do not mix it with other medications.
D. Give the pantoprazole rapidly to save time.
Q9. A client with an active upper gastrointestinal bleed has intravenous pantoprazole
prescribed. The nurse understands the main purpose of this drug in this situation is to:
A. Stop the bleeding immediately.
B. Raise the gastric pH to help stabilize a clot and reduce further bleeding.
C. Replace lost blood volume.
D. Relieve pain from the bleed.
Q10. A client has taken metoclopramide for several weeks. The nurse should report which
finding immediately?
A. Mild drowsiness
B. Involuntary lip smacking and tongue movements
C. Increased bowel sounds
D. Relief of nausea
Q11. Metoclopramide is prescribed for a client. Which condition in the client's history would
cause the nurse to question the order?
A. Diabetic gastroparesis
B. Gastroesophageal reflux disease
C. Mechanical bowel obstruction
D. Nausea after surger
Page 2
,Q12. A nurse explains how morphine relieves pain. Which statement is accurate?
A. Morphine binds to opioid receptors in the central nervous system and changes the
perception of pain.
B. Morphine blocks prostaglandin production at the site of injury.
C. Morphine reduces inflammation around the nerve.
D. Morphine numbs the area by blocking sodium channels in the nerve.
Q13. A nurse is caring for four clients who each received an opioid one hour ago. Which client
should the nurse assess first?
A. A client who reports pain of 3 on a scale of 0 to 10
B. A client with a respiratory rate of 8 and difficulty staying awake
C. A client who reports mild itching
D. A client who has not had a bowel movement in two days
Q14. A client is starting around the clock oxycodone for cancer pain. Which intervention should
the nurse plan to prevent a common adverse effect?
A. Restrict fluids
B. Start a stimulant laxative and a stool softener as prescribed
C. Limit physical activity
D. Provide a low fiber diet
Q15. A nurse teaches a client who takes acetaminophen for chronic joint pain. Which statement
by the client indicates correct understanding?
A. I should not take more than 4 grams in 24 hours from all sources.
B. I can take extra doses because it is sold without a prescription.
C. I should take it with my evening alcohol to help me relax.
D. Acetaminophen will reduce the swelling in my joints.
Q16. A client is admitted after taking a large amount of acetaminophen. The nurse anticipates
administering which antidote?
A. Naloxone
B. Vitamin K
C. Acetylcysteine
D. Flumazenil
Q17. A client asks how ibuprofen helps with arthritis pain. The nurse explains that nonsteroidal
antiinflammatory drugs work by:
A. Blocking opioid receptors
B. Inhibiting cyclooxygenase enzymes, which lowers prostaglandins
C. Increasing stomach acid
D. Blocking histamine
Page 3
, Q18. A nurse provides teaching about long term naproxen use. Which instruction is most
important to prevent a common serious adverse effect?
A. Take the medication on an empty stomach.
B. Take the medication with food and report black or tarry stools.
C. Avoid drinking water with the dose.
D. Double the dose if pain returns quickly.
Q19. An NSAID is prescribed for several clients. For which client should the nurse question the
order?
A. A client with mild seasonal allergies
B. A client with chronic kidney disease and a rising creatinine
C. A client with a healed ankle sprain
D. A client with occasional tension headaches
Q20. A parent asks the nurse about giving aspirin to a 7 year old who has a fever and a viral
illness. What is the nurse's best response?
A. Aspirin is the best choice for children with a fever.
B. Aspirin can be given if the fever is high.
C. Aspirin should be avoided in children with a viral illness because of the risk of Reye
syndrome.
D. Aspirin should be given with milk to prevent stomach upset.
Q21. A client takes low dose aspirin daily to lower the risk of heart attack. Which statement
shows correct understanding?
A. Aspirin thins my blood by dissolving existing clots.
B. Aspirin makes my platelets less sticky, so I may bruise or bleed more easily.
C. I should stop the aspirin the day before any minor cut heals.
D. Aspirin will lower my blood pressure.
Q22. A client who takes high dose aspirin for arthritis reports ringing in the ears. The nurse
recognizes this as an early sign of:
A. An expected effect that needs no action
B. Salicylate toxicity
C. An ear infection
D. Low blood sugar
Page 4
