NEWEST ASSOCIATE SAFETY PROFESSIONAL
(ASP) EXAM OFFERED BY BOARD OF
CERTIFIED SAFETY PROFESSIONALS |
COMPLETE EXAM Q&A WITH RATIONALES
1. A manufacturing facility has a machine with a point
of operation that is 2 inches above the work table.
According to OSHA 29 CFR 1910.212, the guard must
prevent any part of the operator's body from
reaching into the danger zone. What is the maximum
allowable opening size for a fixed guard at a distance
of 2 inches?
A) 1/4 inch (0.25 inch)
B) 1/2 inch (0.5 inch)
C) 1 inch
D) 2 inches
Correct answer: A
Rationale: OSHA Table O-10 (1910.217) provides
guard opening sizes. At a distance of 2 inches from
the danger zone, the maximum opening is 1/4 inch.
This prevents finger entry.
2. A safety professional is calculating the total
recordable incident rate (TRIR) for a facility with 150
,employees who worked a total of 300,000 hours in a
year. There were 6 recordable injuries (3 with days
away from work, 3 without). What is the TRIR?
A) 2.0
B) 4.0
C) 6.0
D) 8.0
Correct answer: B
Rationale: TRIR = (Number of recordable injuries x
200,000) / total hours worked = (6 x 200,000) /
300,000 = 4.0. The 200,000 factor represents 100
employees working 40 hours/week for 50 weeks.
3. A confined space has a history of containing
flammable vapors. Before entry, the atmosphere
must be tested. What is the maximum allowable lower
explosive limit (LEL) percentage for safe entry
without respiratory protection?
A) 0% LEL (no flammable vapors)
B) 5% LEL
C) 10% LEL
D) 25% LEL
Correct answer: C
,Rationale: OSHA 1910.146 requires that the
atmosphere be tested and that flammable vapors be
below 10% of the LEL for safe entry. Some facilities
require below 5% for added safety.
4. A chemical plant has a storage tank containing a
flammable liquid. The tank is located inside a diked
area. What is the minimum required capacity of the
dike (secondary containment) according to EPA?
A) 10% of the tank's volume
B) 25% of the tank's volume
C) 100% of the largest tank's volume plus 10% of the
total volume
D) 110% of the largest tank's volume
Correct answer: D
Rationale: EPA SPCC (Spill Prevention Control and
Countermeasure) requires secondary containment to
hold the capacity of the largest tank plus sufficient
freeboard for precipitation. Typically 110% of the
largest tank's volume.
5. A safety professional is conducting a Job Safety
Analysis (JSA) for a task that involves lifting heavy
boxes. Which of the following is the correct sequence
of steps in a JSA?
, A) Observe the job, break into steps, identify
hazards, develop controls
B) Break into steps, observe the job, identify hazards,
develop controls
C) Identify hazards, observe the job, break into steps,
develop controls
D) Develop controls, identify hazards, observe the
job, break into steps
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence is: observe the job
being performed, break the job into basic steps,
identify potential hazards for each step, then develop
solutions to eliminate or control hazards.
6. A worker is exposed to 92 dBA for 6 hours and 85
dBA for 2 hours. The OSHA permissible exposure
limit (PEL) for noise is 90 dBA for 8 hours (50% dose).
What is the total noise dose?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 100%
D) 125%
Correct answer: C
(ASP) EXAM OFFERED BY BOARD OF
CERTIFIED SAFETY PROFESSIONALS |
COMPLETE EXAM Q&A WITH RATIONALES
1. A manufacturing facility has a machine with a point
of operation that is 2 inches above the work table.
According to OSHA 29 CFR 1910.212, the guard must
prevent any part of the operator's body from
reaching into the danger zone. What is the maximum
allowable opening size for a fixed guard at a distance
of 2 inches?
A) 1/4 inch (0.25 inch)
B) 1/2 inch (0.5 inch)
C) 1 inch
D) 2 inches
Correct answer: A
Rationale: OSHA Table O-10 (1910.217) provides
guard opening sizes. At a distance of 2 inches from
the danger zone, the maximum opening is 1/4 inch.
This prevents finger entry.
2. A safety professional is calculating the total
recordable incident rate (TRIR) for a facility with 150
,employees who worked a total of 300,000 hours in a
year. There were 6 recordable injuries (3 with days
away from work, 3 without). What is the TRIR?
A) 2.0
B) 4.0
C) 6.0
D) 8.0
Correct answer: B
Rationale: TRIR = (Number of recordable injuries x
200,000) / total hours worked = (6 x 200,000) /
300,000 = 4.0. The 200,000 factor represents 100
employees working 40 hours/week for 50 weeks.
3. A confined space has a history of containing
flammable vapors. Before entry, the atmosphere
must be tested. What is the maximum allowable lower
explosive limit (LEL) percentage for safe entry
without respiratory protection?
A) 0% LEL (no flammable vapors)
B) 5% LEL
C) 10% LEL
D) 25% LEL
Correct answer: C
,Rationale: OSHA 1910.146 requires that the
atmosphere be tested and that flammable vapors be
below 10% of the LEL for safe entry. Some facilities
require below 5% for added safety.
4. A chemical plant has a storage tank containing a
flammable liquid. The tank is located inside a diked
area. What is the minimum required capacity of the
dike (secondary containment) according to EPA?
A) 10% of the tank's volume
B) 25% of the tank's volume
C) 100% of the largest tank's volume plus 10% of the
total volume
D) 110% of the largest tank's volume
Correct answer: D
Rationale: EPA SPCC (Spill Prevention Control and
Countermeasure) requires secondary containment to
hold the capacity of the largest tank plus sufficient
freeboard for precipitation. Typically 110% of the
largest tank's volume.
5. A safety professional is conducting a Job Safety
Analysis (JSA) for a task that involves lifting heavy
boxes. Which of the following is the correct sequence
of steps in a JSA?
, A) Observe the job, break into steps, identify
hazards, develop controls
B) Break into steps, observe the job, identify hazards,
develop controls
C) Identify hazards, observe the job, break into steps,
develop controls
D) Develop controls, identify hazards, observe the
job, break into steps
Correct answer: A
Rationale: The correct sequence is: observe the job
being performed, break the job into basic steps,
identify potential hazards for each step, then develop
solutions to eliminate or control hazards.
6. A worker is exposed to 92 dBA for 6 hours and 85
dBA for 2 hours. The OSHA permissible exposure
limit (PEL) for noise is 90 dBA for 8 hours (50% dose).
What is the total noise dose?
A) 50%
B) 75%
C) 100%
D) 125%
Correct answer: C
