2026/2027
Complete Study and Revision
Resource for NSG 530 Exam II
Advanced Pathophysiology Wilkes
University 2026/2027 Academic Year
Question 1:
A nurse is assessing an infant with suspected fetal alcohol exposure. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Low birth weight
B. Cognitive impairment
C. Facial anomalies
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Rationale:
Fetal alcohol exposure is associated with a spectrum of developmental abnormalities
known as fetal alcohol syndrome. Affected infants commonly present with low birth
weight due to impaired intrauterine growth, characteristic facial anomalies such as
smooth philtrum and thin upper lip, and neurodevelopmental impairment that may
progress to intellectual disability. Because alcohol disrupts organogenesis and
neuronal development, multiple body systems are affected simultaneously. Therefore,
all listed findings are correct manifestations of fetal alcohol exposure.
Question 2:
A trauma nurse documents “tattooing and stippling” around a wound. What type of
injury is most likely present?
A. Blunt force trauma
B. Gunshot wound
C. Thermal burn
D. Sharp laceration
Correct Answer: B. Gunshot wound
Rationale:
Tattooing and stippling are classic forensic findings associated with gunshot injuries.
They occur when unburned gunpowder particles embed into the skin surrounding the
entry wound, producing punctate abrasions and discoloration. These findings indicate
,2026/2027
a close-range discharge. Blunt force trauma, burns, and sharp lacerations do not
produce powder pattern injuries, making a gunshot wound the correct diagnosis.
Question 3:
A newborn is diagnosed with Down syndrome. The nurse understands this condition
results from which chromosomal abnormality?
A. Trisomy 18
B. Trisomy 13
C. Trisomy 21
D. Monosomy X
Correct Answer: C. Trisomy 21
Rationale:
Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21,
known as trisomy 21. This leads to characteristic facial features, intellectual disability,
and congenital anomalies. Trisomy 18 and 13 are associated with Edwards and Patau
syndromes, respectively, while monosomy X causes Turner syndrome. Therefore,
chromosome 21 is the correct answer.
Question 4:
A couple has one child with an autosomal recessive disorder and one healthy child.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. One parent is affected and the other is normal
B. Both parents are carriers of the recessive gene
C. Both parents are affected
D. Mutation occurred in the child only
Correct Answer: B. Both parents are carriers of the recessive gene
Rationale:
Autosomal recessive disorders require two copies of a mutated gene for disease
expression. Parents are typically asymptomatic carriers who each contribute one
defective allele. Each pregnancy carries a 25% risk of an affected child, 50% carrier,
and 25% unaffected. This pattern best explains the presence of both affected and
unaffected offspring.
Question 5:
Nondisjunction during meiosis most commonly results in which condition?
A. Point mutation
B. Monosomy or trisomy
,2026/2027
C. Gene deletion
D. Translocation
Correct Answer: B. Monosomy or trisomy
Rationale:
Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis,
resulting in gametes with abnormal chromosome numbers. When fertilization occurs,
this leads to aneuploid conditions such as monosomy (missing chromosome) or
trisomy (extra chromosome). Point mutations and translocations involve different
genetic mechanisms.
Question 6:
A patient experiences hypoxic brain injury. Which type of necrosis is most likely to
occur?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: B. Liquefactive necrosis
Rationale:
Liquefactive necrosis commonly occurs in the brain following ischemic injury
because neural tissue has high lipid content and limited structural support. Enzymatic
digestion leads to complete tissue liquefaction. Coagulative necrosis occurs in most
other solid organs, while caseous necrosis is associated with tuberculosis.
Question 7:
Which organelle is responsible for ATP production in the cell?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome
D. Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: B. Mitochondria
Rationale:
Mitochondria are the primary site of oxidative phosphorylation, producing ATP
through aerobic metabolism. Ribosomes synthesize proteins, lysosomes digest cellular
waste, and the Golgi apparatus modifies and packages proteins. Therefore,
mitochondria are the correct organelles for energy production.
, 2026/2027
Question 8:
Which structure is responsible for protein synthesis?
A. Ribosome
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoskeleton
D. Peroxisome
Correct Answer: A. Ribosome
Rationale:
Ribosomes are responsible for translating messenger RNA into proteins. They may be
free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Other
organelles perform different roles, such as DNA storage (nucleus) or detoxification
(peroxisomes).
Question 9:
The nucleus is best described as:
A. Site of lipid metabolism
B. Site of protein digestion
C. Control center of the cell containing genetic material
D. Energy production organelle
Correct Answer: C. Control center of the cell containing genetic material
Rationale:
The nucleus houses DNA and regulates gene expression, cell division, and cellular
activity. It does not produce energy or digest proteins. These functions belong to
mitochondria and lysosomes respectively.
Question 10:
Which organelle contains digestive enzymes responsible for intracellular breakdown?
A. Lysosome
B. Ribosome
C. Nucleolus
D. Smooth ER
Correct Answer: A. Lysosome
Rationale:
Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that digest cellular waste, pathogens, and
Complete Study and Revision
Resource for NSG 530 Exam II
Advanced Pathophysiology Wilkes
University 2026/2027 Academic Year
Question 1:
A nurse is assessing an infant with suspected fetal alcohol exposure. Which of the
following findings should the nurse expect to observe?
A. Low birth weight
B. Cognitive impairment
C. Facial anomalies
D. All of the above
Correct Answer: D. All of the above
Rationale:
Fetal alcohol exposure is associated with a spectrum of developmental abnormalities
known as fetal alcohol syndrome. Affected infants commonly present with low birth
weight due to impaired intrauterine growth, characteristic facial anomalies such as
smooth philtrum and thin upper lip, and neurodevelopmental impairment that may
progress to intellectual disability. Because alcohol disrupts organogenesis and
neuronal development, multiple body systems are affected simultaneously. Therefore,
all listed findings are correct manifestations of fetal alcohol exposure.
Question 2:
A trauma nurse documents “tattooing and stippling” around a wound. What type of
injury is most likely present?
A. Blunt force trauma
B. Gunshot wound
C. Thermal burn
D. Sharp laceration
Correct Answer: B. Gunshot wound
Rationale:
Tattooing and stippling are classic forensic findings associated with gunshot injuries.
They occur when unburned gunpowder particles embed into the skin surrounding the
entry wound, producing punctate abrasions and discoloration. These findings indicate
,2026/2027
a close-range discharge. Blunt force trauma, burns, and sharp lacerations do not
produce powder pattern injuries, making a gunshot wound the correct diagnosis.
Question 3:
A newborn is diagnosed with Down syndrome. The nurse understands this condition
results from which chromosomal abnormality?
A. Trisomy 18
B. Trisomy 13
C. Trisomy 21
D. Monosomy X
Correct Answer: C. Trisomy 21
Rationale:
Down syndrome is caused by the presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21,
known as trisomy 21. This leads to characteristic facial features, intellectual disability,
and congenital anomalies. Trisomy 18 and 13 are associated with Edwards and Patau
syndromes, respectively, while monosomy X causes Turner syndrome. Therefore,
chromosome 21 is the correct answer.
Question 4:
A couple has one child with an autosomal recessive disorder and one healthy child.
What is the most likely explanation?
A. One parent is affected and the other is normal
B. Both parents are carriers of the recessive gene
C. Both parents are affected
D. Mutation occurred in the child only
Correct Answer: B. Both parents are carriers of the recessive gene
Rationale:
Autosomal recessive disorders require two copies of a mutated gene for disease
expression. Parents are typically asymptomatic carriers who each contribute one
defective allele. Each pregnancy carries a 25% risk of an affected child, 50% carrier,
and 25% unaffected. This pattern best explains the presence of both affected and
unaffected offspring.
Question 5:
Nondisjunction during meiosis most commonly results in which condition?
A. Point mutation
B. Monosomy or trisomy
,2026/2027
C. Gene deletion
D. Translocation
Correct Answer: B. Monosomy or trisomy
Rationale:
Nondisjunction is the failure of chromosomes to separate properly during meiosis,
resulting in gametes with abnormal chromosome numbers. When fertilization occurs,
this leads to aneuploid conditions such as monosomy (missing chromosome) or
trisomy (extra chromosome). Point mutations and translocations involve different
genetic mechanisms.
Question 6:
A patient experiences hypoxic brain injury. Which type of necrosis is most likely to
occur?
A. Coagulative necrosis
B. Liquefactive necrosis
C. Caseous necrosis
D. Fat necrosis
Correct Answer: B. Liquefactive necrosis
Rationale:
Liquefactive necrosis commonly occurs in the brain following ischemic injury
because neural tissue has high lipid content and limited structural support. Enzymatic
digestion leads to complete tissue liquefaction. Coagulative necrosis occurs in most
other solid organs, while caseous necrosis is associated with tuberculosis.
Question 7:
Which organelle is responsible for ATP production in the cell?
A. Ribosome
B. Mitochondria
C. Lysosome
D. Golgi apparatus
Correct Answer: B. Mitochondria
Rationale:
Mitochondria are the primary site of oxidative phosphorylation, producing ATP
through aerobic metabolism. Ribosomes synthesize proteins, lysosomes digest cellular
waste, and the Golgi apparatus modifies and packages proteins. Therefore,
mitochondria are the correct organelles for energy production.
, 2026/2027
Question 8:
Which structure is responsible for protein synthesis?
A. Ribosome
B. Nucleus
C. Cytoskeleton
D. Peroxisome
Correct Answer: A. Ribosome
Rationale:
Ribosomes are responsible for translating messenger RNA into proteins. They may be
free in the cytoplasm or attached to the rough endoplasmic reticulum. Other
organelles perform different roles, such as DNA storage (nucleus) or detoxification
(peroxisomes).
Question 9:
The nucleus is best described as:
A. Site of lipid metabolism
B. Site of protein digestion
C. Control center of the cell containing genetic material
D. Energy production organelle
Correct Answer: C. Control center of the cell containing genetic material
Rationale:
The nucleus houses DNA and regulates gene expression, cell division, and cellular
activity. It does not produce energy or digest proteins. These functions belong to
mitochondria and lysosomes respectively.
Question 10:
Which organelle contains digestive enzymes responsible for intracellular breakdown?
A. Lysosome
B. Ribosome
C. Nucleolus
D. Smooth ER
Correct Answer: A. Lysosome
Rationale:
Lysosomes contain hydrolytic enzymes that digest cellular waste, pathogens, and
