NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2 Questions and Answers
Latest 2026/27- UTA
Antimicrobials (12 questions)
6̇
1. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin?
A) Inhibits protein synthesis
B) Inhibits cell wall synthesis
C) Alters DNA replication
D) Blocks folic acid synthesis
Answer: B
Explanation: Beta-lactams inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding
proteins.
2. Which generation of cephalosporins is most effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Answer: D
Explanation: Fourth-generation cephalosporins like cefepime are effective against
Pseudomonas.
3. Vancomycin is the drug of choice for:
A) MRSA infections
B) VRE infections
C) UTI
D) Syphilis
Answer: A
Explanation: Vancomycin is first-line for MRSA due to its gram-positive spectrum.
4. What is the peak concern with aminoglycosides?
A) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
D) Anemia
Answer: C
Explanation: Aminoglycosides are known for nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
5. What mineral interactions reduce the absorption of tetracyclines?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium, iron, magnesium
D) Phosphate
Answer: C
Explanation: Tetracyclines chelate with these minerals, reducing efficacy.
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2
,6. Macrolides can inhibit which hepatic enzyme system?
A) CYP1A2
B) CYP2D6
C) CYP3A4
D) CYP2C19
Answer: C
Explanation: Erythromycin and clarithromycin are strong CYP3A4 inhibitors.
7. Which antibiotic is associated with Clostridioides difficile colitis?
A) Metronidazole
B) Clindamycin
C) Nitrofurantoin
D) Ciprofloxacin
Answer: B
Explanation: Clindamycin is highly associated with C. diff.
8. Linezolid requires weekly monitoring of which lab value?
A) Liver enzymes
B) Platelet count
C) BUN
D) Calcium
Answer: B
Explanation: Linezolid may cause thrombocytopenia with prolonged use.
9. Sulfonamides inhibit:
A) Bacterial DNA gyrase
B) Folic acid synthesis
C) Ribosomal activity
D) Protein folding
Answer: B
Explanation: Sulfonamides inhibit folic acid synthesis, crucial for bacterial DNA.
10. Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for:
A) Seizures
B) Arrhythmias
C) Tendon rupture
D) Renal failure
Answer: C
Explanation: Tendon rupture is a serious risk, especially in older adults.
11. What is the mechanism of daptomycin?
A) DNA synthesis inhibition
B) Membrane depolarization
C) Folate synthesis inhibition
D) Protein synthesis inhibition
Answer: B
Explanation: Daptomycin causes rapid depolarization of the membrane potential.
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2
,12. Metronidazole should be avoided with:
A) Dairy products
B) Alcohol
C) Antacids
D) Grapefruit
Answer: B
Explanation: Causes a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol.
Gastrointestinal (8 questions)
•
„
P
¶
13. What is the action of PPIs?
A) Block histamine receptors
B) Neutralize stomach acid
C) Irreversibly inhibit H+/K+ ATPase
D) Stimulate mucus secretion
Answer: C
Explanation: PPIs block the final step of acid secretion.
14. Aluminum-containing antacids can cause:
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Flatulence
D) Vomiting
Answer: B
Explanation: Aluminum antacids commonly cause constipation.
15. What is a unique caution for cimetidine?
A) Sedation
B) QT prolongation
C) CYP450 inhibition
D) Hepatitis
Answer: C
Explanation: Cimetidine inhibits multiple CYP enzymes.
16. Sucralfate should be administered:
A) After meals
B) With food
C) Before meals
D) At bedtime only
Answer: C
Explanation: It forms a protective barrier when given on an empty stomach.
17. Loperamide is contraindicated in:
A) IBS
B) Traveler's diarrhea
C) Bloody diarrhea
D) Stress-related diarrhea
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2
, Answer: C
Explanation: Avoid in bacterial enteritis or bloody diarrhea.
18. Which laxative acts as a chloride channel activator?
A) Lactulose
B) Bisacodyl
C) Lubiprostone
D) Psyllium
Answer: C
Explanation: Lubiprostone activates chloride channels, increasing fluid secretion.
19. Which is safest for treating nausea in pregnancy?
A) Metoclopramide
B) Ondansetron
C) Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
D) Dronabinol
Answer: C
Explanation: Pyridoxine is considered safe and effective in pregnancy.
20. Which antiemetic works as a dopamine antagonist?
A) Scopolamine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Dronabinol
D) Ondansetron
Answer: B
Explanation: Metoclopramide antagonizes dopamine receptors in the CNS.
Women’s Health (8 questions)
21. Estrogens increase the risk of:
A) Osteoporosis
B) Endometrial cancer
C) UTIs
D) Acne
Answer: B
Explanation: Unopposed estrogen increases endometrial hyperplasia risk.
22. Emergency contraception with ulipristal works by:
A) Inducing uterine contractions
B) Delaying ovulation
C) Inhibiting implantation
D) Altering cervical mucus
Answer: B
Explanation: Ulipristal delays follicular rupture.
23. Which contraceptive is safest in smokers >35 years?
A) Combined pill
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2
Latest 2026/27- UTA
Antimicrobials (12 questions)
6̇
1. What is the primary mechanism of action of beta-lactam antibiotics like penicillin?
A) Inhibits protein synthesis
B) Inhibits cell wall synthesis
C) Alters DNA replication
D) Blocks folic acid synthesis
Answer: B
Explanation: Beta-lactams inhibit bacterial cell wall synthesis by binding to penicillin-binding
proteins.
2. Which generation of cephalosporins is most effective against Pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) First
B) Second
C) Third
D) Fourth
Answer: D
Explanation: Fourth-generation cephalosporins like cefepime are effective against
Pseudomonas.
3. Vancomycin is the drug of choice for:
A) MRSA infections
B) VRE infections
C) UTI
D) Syphilis
Answer: A
Explanation: Vancomycin is first-line for MRSA due to its gram-positive spectrum.
4. What is the peak concern with aminoglycosides?
A) Stevens-Johnson syndrome
B) Hepatotoxicity
C) Ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity
D) Anemia
Answer: C
Explanation: Aminoglycosides are known for nephrotoxicity and ototoxicity.
5. What mineral interactions reduce the absorption of tetracyclines?
A) Sodium
B) Potassium
C) Calcium, iron, magnesium
D) Phosphate
Answer: C
Explanation: Tetracyclines chelate with these minerals, reducing efficacy.
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2
,6. Macrolides can inhibit which hepatic enzyme system?
A) CYP1A2
B) CYP2D6
C) CYP3A4
D) CYP2C19
Answer: C
Explanation: Erythromycin and clarithromycin are strong CYP3A4 inhibitors.
7. Which antibiotic is associated with Clostridioides difficile colitis?
A) Metronidazole
B) Clindamycin
C) Nitrofurantoin
D) Ciprofloxacin
Answer: B
Explanation: Clindamycin is highly associated with C. diff.
8. Linezolid requires weekly monitoring of which lab value?
A) Liver enzymes
B) Platelet count
C) BUN
D) Calcium
Answer: B
Explanation: Linezolid may cause thrombocytopenia with prolonged use.
9. Sulfonamides inhibit:
A) Bacterial DNA gyrase
B) Folic acid synthesis
C) Ribosomal activity
D) Protein folding
Answer: B
Explanation: Sulfonamides inhibit folic acid synthesis, crucial for bacterial DNA.
10. Fluoroquinolones carry a black box warning for:
A) Seizures
B) Arrhythmias
C) Tendon rupture
D) Renal failure
Answer: C
Explanation: Tendon rupture is a serious risk, especially in older adults.
11. What is the mechanism of daptomycin?
A) DNA synthesis inhibition
B) Membrane depolarization
C) Folate synthesis inhibition
D) Protein synthesis inhibition
Answer: B
Explanation: Daptomycin causes rapid depolarization of the membrane potential.
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2
,12. Metronidazole should be avoided with:
A) Dairy products
B) Alcohol
C) Antacids
D) Grapefruit
Answer: B
Explanation: Causes a disulfiram-like reaction with alcohol.
Gastrointestinal (8 questions)
•
„
P
¶
13. What is the action of PPIs?
A) Block histamine receptors
B) Neutralize stomach acid
C) Irreversibly inhibit H+/K+ ATPase
D) Stimulate mucus secretion
Answer: C
Explanation: PPIs block the final step of acid secretion.
14. Aluminum-containing antacids can cause:
A) Diarrhea
B) Constipation
C) Flatulence
D) Vomiting
Answer: B
Explanation: Aluminum antacids commonly cause constipation.
15. What is a unique caution for cimetidine?
A) Sedation
B) QT prolongation
C) CYP450 inhibition
D) Hepatitis
Answer: C
Explanation: Cimetidine inhibits multiple CYP enzymes.
16. Sucralfate should be administered:
A) After meals
B) With food
C) Before meals
D) At bedtime only
Answer: C
Explanation: It forms a protective barrier when given on an empty stomach.
17. Loperamide is contraindicated in:
A) IBS
B) Traveler's diarrhea
C) Bloody diarrhea
D) Stress-related diarrhea
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2
, Answer: C
Explanation: Avoid in bacterial enteritis or bloody diarrhea.
18. Which laxative acts as a chloride channel activator?
A) Lactulose
B) Bisacodyl
C) Lubiprostone
D) Psyllium
Answer: C
Explanation: Lubiprostone activates chloride channels, increasing fluid secretion.
19. Which is safest for treating nausea in pregnancy?
A) Metoclopramide
B) Ondansetron
C) Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
D) Dronabinol
Answer: C
Explanation: Pyridoxine is considered safe and effective in pregnancy.
20. Which antiemetic works as a dopamine antagonist?
A) Scopolamine
B) Metoclopramide
C) Dronabinol
D) Ondansetron
Answer: B
Explanation: Metoclopramide antagonizes dopamine receptors in the CNS.
Women’s Health (8 questions)
21. Estrogens increase the risk of:
A) Osteoporosis
B) Endometrial cancer
C) UTIs
D) Acne
Answer: B
Explanation: Unopposed estrogen increases endometrial hyperplasia risk.
22. Emergency contraception with ulipristal works by:
A) Inducing uterine contractions
B) Delaying ovulation
C) Inhibiting implantation
D) Altering cervical mucus
Answer: B
Explanation: Ulipristal delays follicular rupture.
23. Which contraceptive is safest in smokers >35 years?
A) Combined pill
NURS 5334 Advanced Pharmacology Quiz 2
