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ABIM Internal Medicine Boards ITE – Comprehensive 2025/2026 Study Guide 150 Question and correct detailed answers with Explanation.

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The American Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM) In-Training Examination (ITE) is one of the most important assessments you will take during your residency or fellowship. Administered annually to internal medicine residents across the United States, the ITE serves multiple critical purposes: it predicts your likelihood of passing the final ABIM Certification Examination, identifies specific knowledge gaps in your training, allows program directors to benchmark your performance against national peers, and helps you focus your study efforts during the months leading up to the actual board exam. A strong ITE performance not only builds confidence but also positions you for fellowship applications and career advancement. Conversely, struggling with the ITE can signal the need for significant remediation and a complete restructuring of your study approach. That is why we have created the ABIM Internal Medicine Boards ITE – Comprehensive 2025/2026 Study Guide, a targeted, high-yield resource designed specifically for the latest ABIM content blueprint.

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Institution
Advanced Pathophysiology / Nursing / Nurse Practit
Course
Advanced Pathophysiology / Nursing / Nurse Practit

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ABIM Internal Medicine Boards ITE – Comprehensive
2025/2026 Study Guide 150 Question and correct
detailed answers with Explanation.

Introduction & Coverage

Welcome to the ABIM Internal Medicine ITE 2025/2026 Study Guide The American

Board of Internal Medicine (ABIM) Internal Medicine In-Training Examination

(ITE) is a critical milestone for residents and fellows. It not only predicts performance on

the final ABIM Certification Examination but also identifies knowledge gaps early in

training. This Comprehensive Study Guide is specifically designed for the 2025–2026

testing cycle, reflecting the latest ABIM content blueprints, guideline updates, and

high-yield clinical pearls.

This guide distills thousands of pages of internal medicine into 150 board-style
practice questions, each with five answer choices (A–D) and detailed, italicized
explanations that emphasize:

 Why the correct answer is right
 Why each distractor is wrong
 Clinical reasoning pearls tested on the ITE



How to Use This Guide

1. Review explanations thoroughly – The italicized text contains the “teaching point”
most often tested.
2. Track your weak areas – Use the Coverage table below to identify high-yield systems
needing review.
3. Integrate with MKSAP, UWorld, or NEJM Knowledge+ – This guide serves as a
focused supplement.

,1. A 68-year-old man with dyspnea, JVD, and Kussmaul sign. Echocardiogram shows
thickened pericardium. What is the next best step?
A) Colchicine
B) NSAIDs
C) Pericardiectomy
D) Diuretics

Answer: C
Constrictive pericarditis presents with elevated JVP, Kussmaul sign, and pericardial
thickening. Pericardiectomy is definitive treatment; colchicine/NSAIDs are for acute
pericarditis.

2. A 55-year-old with atrial fibrillation, HR 150, BP 80/50, and chest pain. Next step?
A) Oral metoprolol
B) IV diltiazem
C) Synchronized cardioversion
D) Aspirin only

Answer: C
Hemodynamically unstable atrial fibrillation (hypotension, chest pain) requires immediate
synchronized cardioversion per ACLS guidelines.

3. Anterior STEMI on ECG, symptom onset 45 minutes ago. After aspirin and oxygen,
next step?
A) Heparin drip
B) Emergent PCI
C) Tenecteplase
D) Nitroglycerin drip

,Answer: B
Primary PCI within 90 minutes of first medical contact is standard for STEMI. Fibrinolytics
if PCI delayed >120 minutes.

4. HFrEF patient (EF 30%) on lisinopril, metoprolol, furosemide. Still NYHA class III. Add?
A) Hydralazine
B) Spironolactone
C) Digoxin
D) Ivabradine

Answer: B
Mineralocorticoid receptor antagonists (spironolactone, eplerenone) improve mortality in
NYHA III–IV HFrEF.

5. Asymptomatic severe aortic stenosis (AVA 0.8 cm², peak velocity 4.5 m/s). Next step?
A) Aortic valve replacement
B) Balloon valvuloplasty
C) Clinical surveillance with echo in 6–12 months
D) Dobutamine stress echo

Answer: C
AVR is indicated only when symptoms develop or LVEF <50% in severe AS. Asymptomatic
patients are monitored.

6. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy patient with syncope. Best long-term therapy?
A) Beta-blocker
B) Verapamil
C) ICD placement
D) Septal myectomy

Answer: C
Syncope in HCM is a risk factor for sudden cardiac death; ICD is recommended for primary
prevention.

, 7. Patient on diltiazem and metoprolol presents with HR 38, BP 90/60. Next step?
A) Atropine
B) IV calcium gluconate
C) Transvenous pacing
D) Aminophylline

Answer: B
Calcium channel blocker toxicity causes bradycardia/hypotension; IV calcium gluconate is
the antidote.

8. Harsh systolic murmur at right upper sternal border radiating to carotids. Diagnosis?
A) Mitral regurgitation
B) Aortic stenosis
C) Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy
D) Pulmonary stenosis

Answer: B
Crescendo-decrescendo murmur at RUSB radiating to carotids is classic for aortic stenosis.

9. TTE shows vegetations on mitral valve. Patient has fever and splinter hemorrhages.
Next step?
A) Empiric vancomycin alone
B) Blood cultures ×3 then vancomycin + gentamicin
C) Immediate surgery
D) Oral amoxicillin

Answer: B
Infective endocarditis requires three sets of blood cultures before antibiotics; empiric
therapy covers MSSA/MRSA/Strep.

10. Chest pain with diffuse ST elevations and PR depression. Diagnosis?
A) Acute MI
B) Pericarditis

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Course
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