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NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I — Complete Exam 3 Questions with Verified Answers & Explanations | Galen College of Nursing (100% Correct, 200 Q&A)

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Master your nursing fundamentals with this comprehensive study resource containing 200 practice exam questions, verified correct answers, and detailed rationales tailored for NSG 3100: Fundamental Concepts & Skills for Nursing Practice I (Exam 3) at Galen College of Nursing. This document serves as an exceptional preparation tool covering critical clinical competencies. It features evidence-based questions spanning essential nursing skills, including safe medication administration across various routes (oral, sublingual, IM Z-track, subcutaneous, and transdermal), laboratory diagnostic tests and specific pre-test fasting protocols, advanced sterile techniques and closing sterile dressing boundaries, comprehensive bowel elimination care, including enema administration, ileostomy, and colostomy management, and advanced urinary elimination procedures, such as indwelling Foley catheter insertion, troubleshooting, and 24-hour collection methods. Additionally, it provides vital practice on blood transfusion reaction protocols, IV infiltration and phlebitis identification, patient-controlled analgesia (PCA) monitoring, tracheostomy suctioning guidelines, chest tube management, and wound care assessments using the Braden Scale. Each question is accompanied by a step-by-step breakdown explaining why the correct choice is accurate and why alternative options are incorrect, helping you cultivate the critical clinical judgment required to excel in your course exams and pass the NCLEX.

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NSG 3100 Fundamental Concepts & Skills for
Nursing Practice I – Complete Exam Questions
with Verified Correct Answers and Explanations

EXAM 3 - Galen College of Nursing

Question 1
Which of the following blood tests requires the patient to be fasting?
A. Hemoglobin
B. Prothrombin time
C. Cholesterol
D. Creatinine

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Cholesterol levels are affected by food intake, particularly fats. A fasting period of
9-12 hours is required for accurate lipid panel results. Hemoglobin, prothrombin time, and
creatinine do not require fasting.


Question 2

The patient tells the nurse that she has been on a high-protein, low-carbohydrate diet for the past
6 months. Which blood test results could be influenced by her diet?
A. Bilirubin
B. Creatinine
C. Blood urea nitrogen
D. Creatine kinase

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Blood urea nitrogen (BUN) is a byproduct of protein metabolism. High protein
intake increases BUN levels. Bilirubin (liver function), creatinine (muscle mass/renal function),
and creatine kinase (muscle injury) are not directly affected by dietary protein intake.




pg. 1

,Question 3

The nurse is working at a health fair and providing information about reducing the risk of heart
disease. A male asks what his ideal numbers should be for cholesterol and triglycerides. Which of
the following are recommended levels for lipid?
A. Total cholesterol: >200 mg/dL
B. HDL: >45 mg/dL
C. LDL: >100 mg/dL
D. Triglycerides: >160 mg/dL

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Recommended HDL (good cholesterol) level is >45 mg/dL for men and >50
mg/dL for women. Total cholesterol should be <200 mg/dL; LDL should be <100 mg/dL;
triglycerides should be <150 mg/dL.


Question 4

The nurse is preparing a patient for a barium swallow test. Which statements by the patient
indicate that the patient has understood the nurse's teaching? (Select all that apply.)
A. "The doctor will be able to view my stomach and intestines during the test."
B. "I should increase fluids after the test."
C. "I will have to drink a contrast agent."
D. "Barium can cause constipation and I may need a mild laxative."
E. "I will be NPO for 8 hours after the test."
F. "My stools may turn black for a few days afterward."

Correct Answers: A, B, C, D
Explanation: Barium swallow visualizes the upper GI tract; the patient drinks barium contrast;
increased fluids and mild laxatives help prevent constipation. Barium stools are white or light-
colored, not black. NPO is required before, not after, the test.



Question 5

Which laboratory result should immediately be reported by the nurse to the primary care
provider (PCP)?
A. Hemoglobin: 15.6 g/dL
B. Hematocrit: 32%
C. Red blood cells: 5.3 million/mcL
D. White blood cells: 6000 cells/mcL



pg. 2

,Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hematocrit of 32% is below the normal range (36-46% for women, 40-54% for
men), indicating anemia. The other values are within normal limits.



Question 6

A patient has a 24-hour urine specimen ordered for creatinine clearance. Which instruction is
correct?
A. "Collect all urine from the time the collection begins until it ends."
B. "Save only a sample from each voiding."
C. "Clean the perineal area three times before you begin to urinate."
D. "Discard the first urine specimen, and then collect all urine until the time period expires."
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: For 24-hour urine collection, discard the first void, note the time, then collect all
subsequent voids including the final void at the end time. Option A is incorrect because the first
void is discarded.



Question 7

Which specimens should be collected using sterile technique in a sterile container? (Select all
that apply.)
A. Clean-catch urine
B. Stool for occult blood
C. Wound drainage
D. Sputum
E. Urine from a Foley catheter
Correct Answers: C, E
Explanation: Wound drainage (requires sterile culture) and urine from a Foley catheter (must be
aspirated aseptically) require sterile technique. Clean-catch urine requires clean technique; stool
and sputum do not require sterile containers.


Question 8

Which blood test is used to monitor renal function?
A. Creatine kinase
B. Triglycerides
C. Creatinine
D. Alkaline phosphatase
pg. 3

, Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Creatinine is a waste product from muscle metabolism excreted by the kidneys.
Elevated creatinine indicates impaired renal function. Creatine kinase is cardiac; triglycerides are
lipids; alkaline phosphatase is liver/bone.


Question 9

For which patient is magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) contraindicated?
A. A patient with an allergy to latex
B. A patient with an infection
C. A patient with a pacemaker
D. A patient with a head injury
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: MRI uses powerful magnetic fields that can interfere with pacemakers, cause
malfunction, or lead to patient injury. Pacemakers are an absolute contraindication for MRI.



Question 10

The nurse is caring for a patient after a lumbar puncture to obtain a cerebrospinal fluid specimen.
Which are appropriate post-procedure interventions? (Select all that apply.)
A. Position the patient with head of bed up at least 90 degrees for 4 hours.
B. Assess the puncture site for drainage or bleeding.
C. Encourage PO fluids.
D. Maintain NPO until the gag reflex returns.
E. Encourage ambulation immediately after the test is complete.

Correct Answers: B, C
Explanation: After lumbar puncture, assess puncture site for bleeding/drainage and encourage
oral fluids to prevent post-procedure headache. Patient should lie flat for 4-6 hours (not HOB
90°). Gag reflex is for procedures involving throat; ambulation is delayed.



Question 11

You are instructing a patient on a sterile urine collection. Which statement would indicate the
need for further instruction?
A. "I separate the folds and clean from back to front."
B. "I clean the area three times."
C. "I begin the urine stream and then place the container under the stream midway through."
D. "I make sure there is no stool in the urine specimen."
pg. 4

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