Complete Exam-Style Questions with Detailed Rationales | 100%
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TABLE OF CONTENTS
Section 1 | Safe and Effective Care Environment | Q1 – Q45
Section 2 | Health Promotion and Maintenance | Q46 – Q90
Section 3 | Psychosocial Integrity | Q91 – Q135
Section 4 | Physiological Integrity | Q136 – Q180
Instructions: Choose the single best answer. Pass: Level 2 proficiency in 240 minutes.
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SECTION 1: SAFE AND EFFECTIVE CARE ENVIRONMENT Q1 – Q45
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Question 1 of 180
A nurse on a busy medical-surgical unit receives report on four patients at the start of
the shift. The nurse should assess which patient first?
A. A 45-year-old admitted for elective knee replacement who requests pain medication
B. A 62-year-old with COPD who has new-onset confusion and an oxygen saturation of
86% ✓ CORRECT
C. A 55-year-old post-op appendectomy patient who is requesting water
D. A 38-year-old with stable diverticulitis who reports mild abdominal cramping
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: A patient with new-onset confusion and hypoxemia requires immediate
assessment because these are signs of potential respiratory failure. The post-op patient
requesting water and the patient with stable cramping are lower priority according to
Maslow's hierarchy of needs. Prioritization based on airway and breathing ensures the
most critical patient receives attention first.
Question 2 of 180
,A nurse is caring for a patient placed on contact precautions for a methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus infection. The nurse observes a nursing assistant entering the
room without a gown. Which action by the nurse is most appropriate?
A. Ignore the behavior because the nursing assistant is busy with other tasks
B. Report the nursing assistant to the charge nurse for disciplinary action
C. Remind the nursing assistant to don a gown before entering the room ✓ CORRECT
D. Document the incident in the patient's medical record only
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: The nurse should provide immediate corrective feedback to ensure
compliance with infection control protocols and protect both staff and patients.
Reporting or documenting without immediate intervention does not stop the breach in
real time and allows continued exposure risk. Just-in-time coaching is the standard for
addressing minor safety lapses.
Question 3 of 180
During a fire drill on a psychiatric unit, a nurse smells smoke coming from a patient's
room. The nurse remembers that the acronym RACE stands for which sequence of
actions?
A. Rescue, Alarm, Confine, Extinguish ✓ CORRECT
B. Run, Alert, Call, Evacuate
C. Remove, Activate, Contain, Extinguish
D. Rescue, Alert, Confine, Evacuate
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: RACE stands for Rescue anyone in immediate danger, Alarm or activate the
fire alarm, Confine the fire by closing doors, and Extinguish if the fire is small and
contained. Evacuate is not part of the RACE acronym, though evacuation may be
necessary if the fire cannot be controlled. All staff must know this sequence to respond
effectively during a fire emergency.
,Question 4 of 180
A nurse is preparing to administer heparin subcutaneously to a patient with a history of
deep vein thrombosis. The nurse checks the laboratory results and notes the aPTT is 45
seconds. Which action should the nurse take?
A. Hold the dose and notify the provider immediately
B. Administer the dose and recheck the aPTT in 4 hours
C. Reduce the dose by half and document the value
D. Administer the dose as ordered because the aPTT is within therapeutic range ✓
CORRECT
Correct Answer: D
Rationale: A subcutaneous heparin prophylaxis dose does not typically require aPTT
monitoring, and a value of 45 seconds is generally within normal limits. Therapeutic
intravenous heparin requires aPTT monitoring, but prophylactic subcutaneous dosing
follows a fixed schedule. Nurses must distinguish between prophylactic and therapeutic
anticoagulation to avoid unnecessary dose holds.
Question 5 of 180
A charge nurse on a medical unit is delegating tasks to the staff. Which task is most
appropriate to assign to an experienced licensed practical nurse?
A. Developing a plan of care for a newly admitted patient with heart failure
B. Administering an enema to a patient with constipation ✓ CORRECT
C. Assessing a post-operative patient for signs of hemorrhage
D. Teaching a patient with diabetes how to administer insulin
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Administering an enema is within the scope of practice for an LPN under the
supervision of an RN. Developing care plans, initial patient assessments, and discharge
, teaching require RN-level judgment and education. Proper delegation ensures tasks are
matched to the appropriate level of licensure.
Question 6 of 180
A nurse enters a patient's room and finds the patient on the floor next to the bed. The
patient states, "I just needed to use the bathroom and didn't want to bother anyone." The
nurse's immediate priority is to do which of the following?
A. Document the incident in the event report before leaving the room
B. Call the provider to order x-rays of the patient's hips
C. Assess the patient for injuries and obtain vital signs ✓ CORRECT
D. Instruct the patient to use the call light next time
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: After a fall, the nurse must first assess the patient for injuries, neurological
changes, and hemodynamic stability before any other action. Documentation and
provider notification are important but secondary to immediate patient assessment.
Delaying assessment could miss serious injuries such as fractures or intracranial
bleeding.
Question 7 of 180
A nurse is caring for a patient who is confused and repeatedly tries to pull out the
nasogastric tube. The provider orders wrist restraints. Which nursing action is required
by regulation?
A. Remove the restraints every 2 hours to assess skin integrity and perform range of
motion ✓ CORRECT
B. Keep the restraints in place continuously until the provider discontinues the order
C. Apply the restraints only at night when staffing is lower
D. Pad the restraints tightly to prevent the patient from slipping out
Correct Answer: A