UTA NURS 5338 EXAM ACTUAL EXAM 2026 | MICROBIOLOGY FINAL- PORTAGE
LEARNING | URGENT EMERGENCIES | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
A 28-year-old male patient weighs 160 kg and is diagnosed with uncomplicated gonorrhea.
According to current guidelines, what is the most appropriate pharmacological treatment?
A) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
C) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM single dose
D) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
E) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
Correct Answer: C) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM as a single dose
Rationale: Standard treatment for gonorrhea is Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM for individuals
weighing less than 150 kg. However, for patients weighing 150 kg or more, the dosage
should be increased to 1 gm IM to ensure therapeutic efficacy.
Question 2
A 24-year-old pregnant patient tests positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following
is the first-line recommended treatment for this patient?
A) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
B) Azithromycin 1 gm PO as a single dose
C) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM as a single dose
D) Gentamicin 240 mg IM as a single dose
E) Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily for 7 days
Correct Answer: B) Azithromycin 1 gm as a single dose to treat chlamydia
Rationale: While Doxycycline is the standard treatment for non-pregnant adults, it is
generally avoided in pregnancy due to potential effects on fetal bone and tooth
development. Azithromycin 1 gm as a single dose is the recommended alternative for
pregnant women.
Question 3
When performing a physical assessment on a patient presenting with abdominal pain, in which
order should the components of the exam be conducted?
A) Palpate, Listen, Inspect, Observe
B) Inspect, Palpate, Observe, Listen
C) Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate
D) Listen, Observe, Inspect, Palpate
E) Palpate, Observe, Listen, Inspect
Correct Answer: C) Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate, respectively
Rationale: In clinical assessment, the least invasive procedures are done first. One must first
observe the patient's general demeanor, then inspect the area, listen (auscultate) before
palpating, as palpation can alter bowel sounds and increase pain before all data is gathered.
, 2
Question 4
A 15-year-old patient presents with suspected appendicitis. In which order do the "classic"
symptoms typically appear?
A) Vomiting, then abdominal pain, then anorexia
B) Abdominal pain, then anorexia, then vomiting
C) Anorexia, then abdominal pain, then nausea and vomiting
D) Diarrhea, then abdominal pain, then anorexia
E) Fever, then diarrhea, then right lower quadrant pain
Correct Answer: C) Anorexia, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (typically present in
this order)
Rationale: The classic presentation of appendicitis begins with a loss of appetite (anorexia),
followed by periumbilical pain that migrates to the Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ), and
finally nausea and vomiting. Constipation or diarrhea usually occurs after the pain has
settled.
Question 5
During a physical exam for suspected appendicitis, the provider flexes the patient's right hip and
knee to 90 degrees and rotates the ankle away from the body. This technique is known as:
A) Psoas sign
B) McBurney’s sign
C) Rovsing’s sign
D) Obturator sign
E) Murphy’s sign
Correct Answer: D) Obturator sign
Rationale: The obturator sign involves internal rotation of the flexed right hip. If this causes
pain, it suggests irritation of the obturator internus muscle by an inflamed appendix
located deep in the pelvis.
Question 6
A patient presents to a primary care clinic with signs of sepsis, including a high fever,
tachycardia, and altered mental status. What is the most appropriate action for the Family Nurse
Practitioner (FNP)?
A) Start broad-spectrum oral antibiotics in the clinic
B) Order a CBC and wait for results before acting
C) Perform an I&D if an abscess is found
D) Refer the patient immediately to the Emergency Department (ED)
E) Administer 1 liter of normal saline and reassess in one hour
Correct Answer: D) refer patient to the ED
Rationale: Sepsis is a life-threatening medical emergency that requires intensive monitoring,
, 3
IV fluids, and IV antibiotics. It cannot be managed safely in an outpatient primary care
setting.
Question 7
What is the standard definitive treatment for a localized skin abscess?
A) Long-term oral antibiotics only
B) Topical steroid application
C) Incision and Drainage (I&D)
D) Warm compresses and observation
E) Needle aspiration without incision
Correct Answer: C) I&D
Rationale: The primary treatment for an abscess is physical drainage. While antibiotics may
be used as an adjunct, they cannot effectively penetrate the abscess wall to clear the
infection without an Incision and Drainage (I&D) procedure.
Question 8
Which of the following findings is most characteristic of cellulitis during a physical
examination?
A) Thin, grey homogenous discharge
B) Erythema, warmth, edema, and pain
C) A linear branching corneal ulcer
D) Median nerve paresthesia
E) A palpable "olive" shaped mass in the RLQ
Correct Answer: B) Erythema, warmth, edema, and pain
Rationale: Cellulitis is a spreading bacterial infection of the skin's deeper layers. The
hallmark "classic" signs are localized redness (erythema), heat (warmth), swelling (edema),
and tenderness (pain).
Question 9
When treating a puncture wound caused by an animal bite, which of the following is true?
A) The wound should be sutured closed immediately to prevent scarring
B) The wound is typically left open and treated with Augmentin
C) Topical steroids are the first-line treatment
D) Only human bites require antibiotic prophylaxis
E) Rabies vaccination is only required for cat bites
Correct Answer: B) typically not sutured closed; treat with Augmentin
Rationale: Puncture wounds from animal bites are at high risk for infection because they
trap bacteria deep in the tissue. Closing them with sutures increases this risk. Augmentin
(Amoxicillin-clavulanate) is the antibiotic of choice to cover common oral flora like
Pasteurella.
LEARNING | URGENT EMERGENCIES | ALL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS |
VERIFIED ANSWERS
Question 1
A 28-year-old male patient weighs 160 kg and is diagnosed with uncomplicated gonorrhea.
According to current guidelines, what is the most appropriate pharmacological treatment?
A) Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM single dose
B) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM single dose
C) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM single dose
D) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
E) Azithromycin 1 gm PO single dose
Correct Answer: C) Ceftriaxone 1 gm IM as a single dose
Rationale: Standard treatment for gonorrhea is Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM for individuals
weighing less than 150 kg. However, for patients weighing 150 kg or more, the dosage
should be increased to 1 gm IM to ensure therapeutic efficacy.
Question 2
A 24-year-old pregnant patient tests positive for Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following
is the first-line recommended treatment for this patient?
A) Doxycycline 100 mg PO BID for 7 days
B) Azithromycin 1 gm PO as a single dose
C) Ceftriaxone 500 mg IM as a single dose
D) Gentamicin 240 mg IM as a single dose
E) Levofloxacin 500 mg PO daily for 7 days
Correct Answer: B) Azithromycin 1 gm as a single dose to treat chlamydia
Rationale: While Doxycycline is the standard treatment for non-pregnant adults, it is
generally avoided in pregnancy due to potential effects on fetal bone and tooth
development. Azithromycin 1 gm as a single dose is the recommended alternative for
pregnant women.
Question 3
When performing a physical assessment on a patient presenting with abdominal pain, in which
order should the components of the exam be conducted?
A) Palpate, Listen, Inspect, Observe
B) Inspect, Palpate, Observe, Listen
C) Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate
D) Listen, Observe, Inspect, Palpate
E) Palpate, Observe, Listen, Inspect
Correct Answer: C) Observe, Inspect, Listen, Palpate, respectively
Rationale: In clinical assessment, the least invasive procedures are done first. One must first
observe the patient's general demeanor, then inspect the area, listen (auscultate) before
palpating, as palpation can alter bowel sounds and increase pain before all data is gathered.
, 2
Question 4
A 15-year-old patient presents with suspected appendicitis. In which order do the "classic"
symptoms typically appear?
A) Vomiting, then abdominal pain, then anorexia
B) Abdominal pain, then anorexia, then vomiting
C) Anorexia, then abdominal pain, then nausea and vomiting
D) Diarrhea, then abdominal pain, then anorexia
E) Fever, then diarrhea, then right lower quadrant pain
Correct Answer: C) Anorexia, abdominal pain, nausea and vomiting (typically present in
this order)
Rationale: The classic presentation of appendicitis begins with a loss of appetite (anorexia),
followed by periumbilical pain that migrates to the Right Lower Quadrant (RLQ), and
finally nausea and vomiting. Constipation or diarrhea usually occurs after the pain has
settled.
Question 5
During a physical exam for suspected appendicitis, the provider flexes the patient's right hip and
knee to 90 degrees and rotates the ankle away from the body. This technique is known as:
A) Psoas sign
B) McBurney’s sign
C) Rovsing’s sign
D) Obturator sign
E) Murphy’s sign
Correct Answer: D) Obturator sign
Rationale: The obturator sign involves internal rotation of the flexed right hip. If this causes
pain, it suggests irritation of the obturator internus muscle by an inflamed appendix
located deep in the pelvis.
Question 6
A patient presents to a primary care clinic with signs of sepsis, including a high fever,
tachycardia, and altered mental status. What is the most appropriate action for the Family Nurse
Practitioner (FNP)?
A) Start broad-spectrum oral antibiotics in the clinic
B) Order a CBC and wait for results before acting
C) Perform an I&D if an abscess is found
D) Refer the patient immediately to the Emergency Department (ED)
E) Administer 1 liter of normal saline and reassess in one hour
Correct Answer: D) refer patient to the ED
Rationale: Sepsis is a life-threatening medical emergency that requires intensive monitoring,
, 3
IV fluids, and IV antibiotics. It cannot be managed safely in an outpatient primary care
setting.
Question 7
What is the standard definitive treatment for a localized skin abscess?
A) Long-term oral antibiotics only
B) Topical steroid application
C) Incision and Drainage (I&D)
D) Warm compresses and observation
E) Needle aspiration without incision
Correct Answer: C) I&D
Rationale: The primary treatment for an abscess is physical drainage. While antibiotics may
be used as an adjunct, they cannot effectively penetrate the abscess wall to clear the
infection without an Incision and Drainage (I&D) procedure.
Question 8
Which of the following findings is most characteristic of cellulitis during a physical
examination?
A) Thin, grey homogenous discharge
B) Erythema, warmth, edema, and pain
C) A linear branching corneal ulcer
D) Median nerve paresthesia
E) A palpable "olive" shaped mass in the RLQ
Correct Answer: B) Erythema, warmth, edema, and pain
Rationale: Cellulitis is a spreading bacterial infection of the skin's deeper layers. The
hallmark "classic" signs are localized redness (erythema), heat (warmth), swelling (edema),
and tenderness (pain).
Question 9
When treating a puncture wound caused by an animal bite, which of the following is true?
A) The wound should be sutured closed immediately to prevent scarring
B) The wound is typically left open and treated with Augmentin
C) Topical steroids are the first-line treatment
D) Only human bites require antibiotic prophylaxis
E) Rabies vaccination is only required for cat bites
Correct Answer: B) typically not sutured closed; treat with Augmentin
Rationale: Puncture wounds from animal bites are at high risk for infection because they
trap bacteria deep in the tissue. Closing them with sutures increases this risk. Augmentin
(Amoxicillin-clavulanate) is the antibiotic of choice to cover common oral flora like
Pasteurella.
