A STUDY GUIDE FOR NUR 120 PHARMACOLOGY EXAM WITH
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2026/27
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which adverse
effect requires immediate nursing intervention?
A. Dry cough
B. Angioedema
C. Fatigue
D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Angioedema is a life-threatening adverse effect of
ACE inhibitors requiring immediate discontinuation and emergency
care. Dry cough is common but not emergent. Fatigue and
dizziness are less severe side effects.
2. Which medication class is contraindicated in patients with bilateral
renal artery stenosis?
A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Thiazide diuretics
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ACE inhibitors can cause acute renal failure in
bilateral renal artery stenosis by reducing glomerular filtration
pressure. Beta-blockers, CCBs, and thiazides do not have this
specific contraindication.
,3. A patient receiving heparin therapy has an aPTT of 90 seconds.
What is the priority nursing action?
A. Continue the infusion as ordered
B. Hold the heparin and notify the provider
C. Administer protamine sulfate immediately
D. Increase the heparin dose
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Therapeutic aPTT for heparin is 1.5-2.5 times normal
(46-70 seconds). An aPTT of 90 indicates overdose risk; hold the
medication and notify the provider. Protamine sulfate is reserved
for active bleeding.
4. Which drug suffix indicates a beta-blocker?
A. -pril
B. -sartan
C. -olol
D. -dipine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Beta-blockers end in -olol (e.g., metoprolol, atenolol).
-pril indicates ACE inhibitors, -sartan indicates ARBs, and -dipine
indicates calcium channel blockers.
5. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most
appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the next dose as scheduled
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer vitamin K immediately
, D. Double the next dose
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Therapeutic INR for warfarin is typically 2-3 (or 2.5-
3.5 for mechanical valves). INR of 4.5 indicates excessive
anticoagulation; hold the dose and notify the provider. Vitamin K is
for severe bleeding or INR >5-6.
6. Which medication requires monitoring of serum potassium levels
due to risk of hyperkalemia?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Bumetanide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that
can cause hyperkalemia. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and
bumetanide cause potassium loss (hypokalemia).
7. A patient presents with opioid overdose showing respiratory
depression (respiratory rate 8/min). Which antidote should be
prepared?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Naloxone is the opioid antagonist that reverses
, opioid overdose. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, protamine
sulfate reverses heparin, and vitamin K reverses warfarin.
8. Which antibiotic class is associated with tendon rupture,
especially in patients over 60?
A. Penicillins
B. Macrolides
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Cephalosporins
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)
carry a black box warning for tendonitis and tendon rupture,
particularly in older adults. Other classes do not have this specific
risk.
9. A patient is prescribed digoxin. Which laboratory value requires
monitoring before administration?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
Potassium must be monitored and maintained within normal
range before administering digoxin.
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS 2026/27
1. A patient is prescribed lisinopril for hypertension. Which adverse
effect requires immediate nursing intervention?
A. Dry cough
B. Angioedema
C. Fatigue
D. Dizziness
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Angioedema is a life-threatening adverse effect of
ACE inhibitors requiring immediate discontinuation and emergency
care. Dry cough is common but not emergent. Fatigue and
dizziness are less severe side effects.
2. Which medication class is contraindicated in patients with bilateral
renal artery stenosis?
A. Beta-blockers
B. ACE inhibitors
C. Calcium channel blockers
D. Thiazide diuretics
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: ACE inhibitors can cause acute renal failure in
bilateral renal artery stenosis by reducing glomerular filtration
pressure. Beta-blockers, CCBs, and thiazides do not have this
specific contraindication.
,3. A patient receiving heparin therapy has an aPTT of 90 seconds.
What is the priority nursing action?
A. Continue the infusion as ordered
B. Hold the heparin and notify the provider
C. Administer protamine sulfate immediately
D. Increase the heparin dose
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Therapeutic aPTT for heparin is 1.5-2.5 times normal
(46-70 seconds). An aPTT of 90 indicates overdose risk; hold the
medication and notify the provider. Protamine sulfate is reserved
for active bleeding.
4. Which drug suffix indicates a beta-blocker?
A. -pril
B. -sartan
C. -olol
D. -dipine
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Beta-blockers end in -olol (e.g., metoprolol, atenolol).
-pril indicates ACE inhibitors, -sartan indicates ARBs, and -dipine
indicates calcium channel blockers.
5. A patient on warfarin has an INR of 4.5. What is the most
appropriate nursing action?
A. Administer the next dose as scheduled
B. Hold the dose and notify the provider
C. Administer vitamin K immediately
, D. Double the next dose
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Therapeutic INR for warfarin is typically 2-3 (or 2.5-
3.5 for mechanical valves). INR of 4.5 indicates excessive
anticoagulation; hold the dose and notify the provider. Vitamin K is
for severe bleeding or INR >5-6.
6. Which medication requires monitoring of serum potassium levels
due to risk of hyperkalemia?
A. Furosemide
B. Spironolactone
C. Hydrochlorothiazide
D. Bumetanide
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that
can cause hyperkalemia. Furosemide, hydrochlorothiazide, and
bumetanide cause potassium loss (hypokalemia).
7. A patient presents with opioid overdose showing respiratory
depression (respiratory rate 8/min). Which antidote should be
prepared?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone
C. Protamine sulfate
D. Vitamin K
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Naloxone is the opioid antagonist that reverses
, opioid overdose. Flumazenil reverses benzodiazepines, protamine
sulfate reverses heparin, and vitamin K reverses warfarin.
8. Which antibiotic class is associated with tendon rupture,
especially in patients over 60?
A. Penicillins
B. Macrolides
C. Fluoroquinolones
D. Cephalosporins
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Fluoroquinolones (e.g., ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin)
carry a black box warning for tendonitis and tendon rupture,
particularly in older adults. Other classes do not have this specific
risk.
9. A patient is prescribed digoxin. Which laboratory value requires
monitoring before administration?
A. Sodium
B. Potassium
C. Calcium
D. Magnesium
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hypokalemia increases the risk of digoxin toxicity.
Potassium must be monitored and maintained within normal
range before administering digoxin.
