NURS 5315 EXAM 3 (UTA) NEWEST 2026 ACTUAL
EXAM TEST BANK| NURS5315 ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 3 REVIEW WITH
COMPLETE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
A 57-year-old female presents to the ED for a complaint of cough and
dyspnea. She reports feeling feverish, having a non-productive cough
and progressive shortness of breath. Medical history is negative. On
exam she has a temperature of 100.3 F, a blood pressure of 105/70
mmHg, a heart rate of 106 and a respiratory rate of 32 a minute. The O2
sat is 92% on room air. The chest is dull to percussion on the left lower
base with decreased air exchange audible in the same area. Which is the
most likely diagnosis?
a) Pleural effusion
b) Pneumothorax
c) Tuberculosis
d) Heart Failure – Correct Answer - a) Pleural effusion
The clinical manifestations are most consistent with a pleural effusion
secondary to a left lower lobe pneumonia.
A 60-year-old male with a history of smoking, has a barrel chest and a
productive cough with copious sputum production. His O2 sat is 88%.
Which pathological process best describes this patient's condition?
a) Bronchial irritation/inflammation causes hyperplasia of the mucous
secreting glands.
b) Dilation of air spaces with destruction of the alveolar sacs.
c) Diffuse leakage of exudate into the alveolar sacs.
pg. 1
,d) Granuloma formation in the left lung apex. – Correct Answer - a)
Bronchial irritation/inflammation causes hyperplasia of the mucous
secreting glands.
The clinical scenario is most consistent with chronic bronchitis. Option
A is the pathologic description of chronic bronchitis. Option B is the
pathologic description of emphysema. Option B is the pathologic
description of pneumonia. Option D is the pathologic description of
tuberculosis.
A 3-year-old girl presents to your office with fever, hoarseness and a
"seal bark like" cough. Her mother reports she has had a runny nose,
nasal congestion, sore throat and a cough for the last few days. The
mother brought her to see you because her cough has become louder and
more harsh. Which organism is the most common cause of this girl's
symptoms?
a) Respiratory syncytial virus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Parainfluenza virus – Correct Answer - d) Parainfluenza virus
The clinical scenario is most consistent with croup. The most common
cause of croup is the parainfluenza virus.
A 70-year-old male patient is admitted with profuse diarrhea for three
days. He has a history of systolic heart failure and an ejection fraction of
45%. He is weak and his vitals are 98.0oF, pulse 120, respirations 18,
and blood pressure 75/60 mmHg. The clinical scenario is most
consistent with which diagnosis?
a) Cardiogenic Shock
b) Hypovolemic Shock
pg. 2
,c) Neurogenic Shock
d) Acute Coronary Syndrome
e) Anaphylactic Shock – Correct Answer - b) Hypovolemic Shock
The patient has a hypovolemic shock secondary to significant fluid loss
from diarrhea. While he does have systolic heart failure, cardiogenic
shock is unlikely because his EF is 45%. Also cardiogenic shock is
characterized by persistent hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion
resulting from impaired contractility in the presence of adequate
intravascular volume. Neurogenic shock is related to a systemic
vasodilation which results from an imbalance between parasympathetic
and sympathetic nervous stimulation. Anaphylactic shock results in a
systemic vasodilation and inflammatory response secondary to an
allergen. Finally, he has no clinical manifestations which suggest acute
coronary syndrome.
An acute right ventricular failure may be caused by which pulmonary
condition?
a) Pulmonary Embolus
b) Asthma Exacerbation
c) Lung Cancer
d) Tuberculosis – Correct Answer - a) Pulmonary Embolus
A pulmonary embolus is the only condition listed which may cause an
acute right ventricular failure. A PE may cause this complication if it
significantly occludes pulmonary blood flow from the right ventricle.
The nurse practitioner is caring for a patient with pulmonary arterial
hypertension. For which complication of this disease should the NP
monitor?
a) Right ventricular heart failure
pg. 3
, b) Liver failure
c) Renal Failure
d) Lung Cancer – Correct Answer - a) Right ventricular heart failure
The right side of the heart enlarges because it has to push against high
pulmonary pressures and eventually this hypertrophy will lead to right
sided heart failure.
Which test result below is consistent with COPD?
a) A decreased FEV1
b) A low Residual Volume
c) A high FVC
d) A low Total Lung Capacity – Correct Answer - a) A decreased FEV1
COPD patients typically have a low FEV1 and high lung volumes.
FEV1 is low due to air trapping. Also, the air trapping is responsible for
the high lung volumes. The FVC is normal or low in COPD.
A 45-year-old female presents to your office with fever and chills,
productive cough with rusty sputum, pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea for
2 days. A CBC shows a neutrophilia and the chest x-ray shows an
infiltrate in the left lower lobe. She has not had any sick contacts and has
not been hospitalized since she was a child. Which organism is the most
likely cause of this patient's condition?
a) Influenza A
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Staphylococus aureus
d) Hemophilus influenzae – Correct Answer - b) Streptococcus
pneumoniae
pg. 4
EXAM TEST BANK| NURS5315 ADVANCED
PATHOPHYSIOLOGY EXAM 3 REVIEW WITH
COMPLETE REAL EXAM QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
VERIFIED ANSWERS/ GRADED A+ (MOST RECENT!!)
A 57-year-old female presents to the ED for a complaint of cough and
dyspnea. She reports feeling feverish, having a non-productive cough
and progressive shortness of breath. Medical history is negative. On
exam she has a temperature of 100.3 F, a blood pressure of 105/70
mmHg, a heart rate of 106 and a respiratory rate of 32 a minute. The O2
sat is 92% on room air. The chest is dull to percussion on the left lower
base with decreased air exchange audible in the same area. Which is the
most likely diagnosis?
a) Pleural effusion
b) Pneumothorax
c) Tuberculosis
d) Heart Failure – Correct Answer - a) Pleural effusion
The clinical manifestations are most consistent with a pleural effusion
secondary to a left lower lobe pneumonia.
A 60-year-old male with a history of smoking, has a barrel chest and a
productive cough with copious sputum production. His O2 sat is 88%.
Which pathological process best describes this patient's condition?
a) Bronchial irritation/inflammation causes hyperplasia of the mucous
secreting glands.
b) Dilation of air spaces with destruction of the alveolar sacs.
c) Diffuse leakage of exudate into the alveolar sacs.
pg. 1
,d) Granuloma formation in the left lung apex. – Correct Answer - a)
Bronchial irritation/inflammation causes hyperplasia of the mucous
secreting glands.
The clinical scenario is most consistent with chronic bronchitis. Option
A is the pathologic description of chronic bronchitis. Option B is the
pathologic description of emphysema. Option B is the pathologic
description of pneumonia. Option D is the pathologic description of
tuberculosis.
A 3-year-old girl presents to your office with fever, hoarseness and a
"seal bark like" cough. Her mother reports she has had a runny nose,
nasal congestion, sore throat and a cough for the last few days. The
mother brought her to see you because her cough has become louder and
more harsh. Which organism is the most common cause of this girl's
symptoms?
a) Respiratory syncytial virus
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Mycoplasma pneumoniae
d) Parainfluenza virus – Correct Answer - d) Parainfluenza virus
The clinical scenario is most consistent with croup. The most common
cause of croup is the parainfluenza virus.
A 70-year-old male patient is admitted with profuse diarrhea for three
days. He has a history of systolic heart failure and an ejection fraction of
45%. He is weak and his vitals are 98.0oF, pulse 120, respirations 18,
and blood pressure 75/60 mmHg. The clinical scenario is most
consistent with which diagnosis?
a) Cardiogenic Shock
b) Hypovolemic Shock
pg. 2
,c) Neurogenic Shock
d) Acute Coronary Syndrome
e) Anaphylactic Shock – Correct Answer - b) Hypovolemic Shock
The patient has a hypovolemic shock secondary to significant fluid loss
from diarrhea. While he does have systolic heart failure, cardiogenic
shock is unlikely because his EF is 45%. Also cardiogenic shock is
characterized by persistent hypotension and tissue hypoperfusion
resulting from impaired contractility in the presence of adequate
intravascular volume. Neurogenic shock is related to a systemic
vasodilation which results from an imbalance between parasympathetic
and sympathetic nervous stimulation. Anaphylactic shock results in a
systemic vasodilation and inflammatory response secondary to an
allergen. Finally, he has no clinical manifestations which suggest acute
coronary syndrome.
An acute right ventricular failure may be caused by which pulmonary
condition?
a) Pulmonary Embolus
b) Asthma Exacerbation
c) Lung Cancer
d) Tuberculosis – Correct Answer - a) Pulmonary Embolus
A pulmonary embolus is the only condition listed which may cause an
acute right ventricular failure. A PE may cause this complication if it
significantly occludes pulmonary blood flow from the right ventricle.
The nurse practitioner is caring for a patient with pulmonary arterial
hypertension. For which complication of this disease should the NP
monitor?
a) Right ventricular heart failure
pg. 3
, b) Liver failure
c) Renal Failure
d) Lung Cancer – Correct Answer - a) Right ventricular heart failure
The right side of the heart enlarges because it has to push against high
pulmonary pressures and eventually this hypertrophy will lead to right
sided heart failure.
Which test result below is consistent with COPD?
a) A decreased FEV1
b) A low Residual Volume
c) A high FVC
d) A low Total Lung Capacity – Correct Answer - a) A decreased FEV1
COPD patients typically have a low FEV1 and high lung volumes.
FEV1 is low due to air trapping. Also, the air trapping is responsible for
the high lung volumes. The FVC is normal or low in COPD.
A 45-year-old female presents to your office with fever and chills,
productive cough with rusty sputum, pleuritic chest pain and dyspnea for
2 days. A CBC shows a neutrophilia and the chest x-ray shows an
infiltrate in the left lower lobe. She has not had any sick contacts and has
not been hospitalized since she was a child. Which organism is the most
likely cause of this patient's condition?
a) Influenza A
b) Streptococcus pneumoniae
c) Staphylococus aureus
d) Hemophilus influenzae – Correct Answer - b) Streptococcus
pneumoniae
pg. 4
