1
APEA PREDICTOR
Exam
High-Yield Qs & Answers with
Rationales
This Exam Description:
High-Yield Qs
Answers with Rationales
100% Guaranteed Pass
1
, 2
A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and
lowgrade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports
general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP suspects
mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate
intervention?
Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae Obtain a CBC, throat
culture, and heterophil antibody test.
Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase - Correct
Answer✓✓ Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the
Epstein-Bar virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common
signs and symptoms following incubation period (1-2 months) include
fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and
lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be
present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash occurs in
less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the
Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually
detected in the CBC
A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and
burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and
positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of urinary tract infections.
The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose - Correct Answer✓✓ .
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
2
, 3
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n
appropriate medication to treat urinary tract infections in most
patients. In the case of community resistance to TMPS >20%^,
another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate
length of time is 7 10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for
uncomplicated
UTI
Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
Retinoic acid (Retin A)
Topical tetracycline
Isotretinoin - Correct Answer✓✓ Isotretinoin
Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for
treatment with severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must
be clearly understood by the patient. A woman of childbearing age
must use an effective method of contraception because isotretinoin is
1 There are many restrictions in prescribing this medication because
of the teratogenic effects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is a
pregnancy category X.
An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive.
She should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of
pregnancy
3
APEA PREDICTOR
Exam
High-Yield Qs & Answers with
Rationales
This Exam Description:
High-Yield Qs
Answers with Rationales
100% Guaranteed Pass
1
, 2
A 15 years old high school student with a mild sore throat and
lowgrade fever that has persisted for about 3 weeks. She reports
general malaise, fatigue, and loss of appetite. The NP suspects
mononucleosis. Which of the following is the LEAST appropriate
intervention?
Palpate the lymph nodes and spleen
Examine the posterior oropharynx for petechiae Obtain a CBC, throat
culture, and heterophil antibody test.
Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase - Correct
Answer✓✓ Obtain an urinalyses and serum for LFTs and amylase
Explanation: mononucleosis is a symptomatic infection caused by the
Epstein-Bar virus. Common is people 15-24 years of age. Common
signs and symptoms following incubation period (1-2 months) include
fatigue, chills, malaise, anorexia, white tonsillar exudates and
lymphadenopathy or posterior cervical region. Splenomegaly can be
present. A maculopapular or occasionally a petechial rash occurs in
less than 15% of patients. A diagnosis is usually made using the
Monospot. In addition, neutropenia and lymphocytosis are usually
detected in the CBC
A 32 years old male patient complaint of urinary frequency and
burning on urination for 3 days. Urinalyses reveals bacteriuria and
positive nitrites. He denies any past hx. Of urinary tract infections.
The initial treatment should be:
a. trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
b. ciprofloxacin (Cipro) for 3-5 days
c. Trimethoprim-Sulfamethoxazole for 3 days
d. 750 mg ciprofloxacin as a one-time dose - Correct Answer✓✓ .
trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (Bactrim, Sulfatrim) for 7-10 day
2
, 3
Explanation: trimethoprim-sulfamethoxazole (TMPS) is usually n
appropriate medication to treat urinary tract infections in most
patients. In the case of community resistance to TMPS >20%^,
another medication should be substituted. In men, the appropriate
length of time is 7 10 days. Women may be treated for 3 days for
uncomplicated
UTI
Which agent is most effective for the treatment of nodulocystic acne?
Benzoyl peroxide (Benzac)
Retinoic acid (Retin A)
Topical tetracycline
Isotretinoin - Correct Answer✓✓ Isotretinoin
Explanation: Isotretinoin (Accutane) is a systemic agent indicated for
treatment with severe inflammatory acne. Guidelines for its use must
be clearly understood by the patient. A woman of childbearing age
must use an effective method of contraception because isotretinoin is
1 There are many restrictions in prescribing this medication because
of the teratogenic effects is given during pregnancy. Therefore, it is a
pregnancy category X.
An 18 y/o woman is taking a combined hormonal oral contraceptive.
She should be instructed to use a backup method for the prevention of
pregnancy
3
