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NURS 231 Module 10 Exam – Edition : Pathophysiology with All Questions, Verified Answers, and Rationales (Graded A+)

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NURS 231 Module 10 Exam ( edition) and contains all actual exam questions with verified answers and detailed rationales, graded A+. The content focuses on high yield pathophysiology concepts essential for nursing students, including: • Myocardial infarction (MI) – signs, symptoms, diagnostic markers (troponin), complications (heart failure, cardiogenic shock), and nursing priorities • Angina vs. MI – differentiating features, relief patterns, and clinical significance • Heart failure – left vs. right failure, assessment findings (crackles, JVD, S3), and management • Shock states – hypovolemic, cardiogenic, distributive (septic, neurogenic), and obstructive (tamponade, tension pneumothorax); recognition, hemodynamic parameters (MAP, CVP), and treatment (fluids, vasopressors like dopamine, norepinephrine) • Pulmonary embolism (PE) – risk factors, clinical presentation (pleuritic chest pain, tachypnea, hypoxia), ABG findings (respiratory alkalosis), heparin/warfarin therapy, and INR/aPTT monitoring • ARDS and mechanical ventilation – refractory hypoxemia, PEEP, ventilator settings (SIMV, pressure support), complications (pneumothorax, VAP), and ventilator bundle care • Acid-base disorders – respiratory acidosis/alkalosis, metabolic acidosis/alkalosis, ABG interpretation, and associated electrolyte imbalances (K+, Ca+) • Dysrhythmias – sinus brady/tachy, atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, ventricular fibrillation; ECG characteristics, stable vs. unstable criteria, and treatments (adenosine, amiodarone, cardioversion, defibrillation) • Shock calculations – MAP formula, CVP interpretation, fluid resuscitation (30 mL/kg for sepsis), and medication titrations • End-of-life and comfort care – symptom management (pain, dyspnea, agitation), and palliative interventions

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NURS 231 MODULE 10 EXAM EDITION 2026-2027

PATHOPHYSIOLOGY WITH ALL QUESTIONS AND

VERIFIED ANSWERS WITH RATIONALES GRADED A+



A patient with a diagnosis of myocardial infarction is admitted to your unit. Which of the

patient's statements would alert you to the possibility of acute heart failure?


a) "I think my dose of digoxin may need to be increased."


b) "I have noticed a lack of appetite lately."


c) "I have trouble remembering things lately."


d) "I'm feeling short of breath when I walk to the bathroom."




The nurse is caring for patients on a cardiac unit. Which patient should the nurse assess first?


a) The patient diagnosed with Heart Failure who has bilateral 3+ peripheral edema.


b) The patient diagnosed with mitral valve regurgitation who has dyspnea on exertion.


c) The patient diagnosed with angina who is reporting chest pain.


d) The patient diagnosed with pericarditis who has a temperature of 100 degrees F. c

,A patient with a history of angina should be pain-free. If he/she is not, then there may be

myocardial ischemia occurring. All of the other choices represent expected, but non-life-

threatening findings for the diagnosis.




The nurse is caring for a patient with Diabetic Ketoacidosis. Which of the following is the most

concerning assessment finding?


a) Blood pressure is 103/78.


b) Blood sugar is 565.


c) Urine is dark and cloudy.


d) Patient is confused and agitated. d) Patient is confused and agitated.


A patient in DKA is at risk for impaired central perfusion, secondary to hypovolemia. Confused

and agitated is an indicator of poor perfusion to the brain and is the priority issue. Blood

pressure is acceptable, but note the narrowed pulse pressure indicating compensatory

vasoconstriction.




You are monitoring the patient undergoing exercise EKG (stress test). Which of the following

criteria would indicate that the test should be stopped prematurely?


a) If the patient's respiratory rate exceeds 24 breaths/minute


b) When the incline of the treadmill reaches 10% elevation


c) If the patient's EKG indicates significant ST segment depression

,d) When the patient's heart rate reaches 120 beats/minute


ST depression may indicate cardiac ischemia. All other choices are expected.




A patient is admitted to the intensive care unit for treatment of shock. The prescriber orders

norepinephrine (Levophed). The nurse expects this drug to increase tissue perfusion in this

patient by primarily activating:


a) alpha1 receptors to cause vasodilation.


b) beta2 receptors to cause bronchodilation.


c) beta1 receptors to cause a positive inotropic effect.


d) alpha1 receptors to increase blood pressure.




A patient comes into the emergency department with extensive bleeding from face, arm, and

chest wounds. What is the earliest manifestation of hypovolemic shock likely to be detected in

this patient?


a) Increased respiratory rate.


b) Increased heart rate.


c) Decreased blood pressure.


d) Cool, pale skin.

, Your patient had sudden, sharp chest pain and is breathing rapidly. The provisional diagnosis is

acute pulmonary embolism. Which of the following arterial blood gas results would you expect

to see during the first 20 minutes after the start of this episode?


a) pH 7.30 HCO3 22 PCO2 60 PO2 66


b) pH 7.46 HCO3 28 PCO2 65 PO2 75


c) pH 7.38 HCO3 22 PCO2 45 PO2 96


d) pH 7.47 HCO3 22 PCO2 25 PO2 70


Remember that a patient with a PE will be tachypneic, which leads to an increased excretion

(blowing off) of CO2, which causes a respiratory alkalosis. Additionally, hypoxemia would be

expected.




The patient is diagnosed with heart failure. The nurse finds the patient lying in bed, short of

breath, unable to talk, and with buccal cyanosis. Which intervention should the nurse

implement first?


a) Call Rapid Response Team.


b) Assist the patient to a sitting position.


c) Assess the patient's vital signs.


d) Asuscultate the patient's lung sounds.

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