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NSG 3160 Exam 2 Health Assessment: Comprehensive Clinical Reasoning Questions with Rationales

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This comprehensive study guide contains 200 exam-style questions and detailed rationales for NSG 3160 (Health Assessment) Exam 2, updated for current nursing practice. Covering essential topics for nursing health assessment, it includes cardiac assessment (aortic regurgitation murmur, mitral regurgitation murmur, S3 gallop, S4 gallop, jugular venous pressure, pulsus paradoxus, Kussmaul sign, carotid bruits, apical impulse displacement, pericardial friction rub, valvular heart disease maneuvers), respiratory assessment (pleural effusion dullness and egophony, COPD barrel chest and hyperresonance, pneumothorax tracheal deviation, wheezing, crackles, rhonchi, bronchial breath sounds, tactile fremitus, whispered pectoriloquy), abdominal assessment (ascites shifting dullness and fluid wave, caput medusae, Cullen sign, Grey Turner sign, psoas sign, obturator sign, Murphy sign, Rovsing sign, hepatomegaly, splenomegaly, abdominal aortic aneurysm pulsatile mass, bruits over renal arteries, liver span percussion), neurological assessment (cranial nerve testing: CN V trigeminal corneal reflex and jaw jerk, CN VII facial symmetry, CN VIII vestibulocochlear nystagmus, CN XI spinal accessory shoulder shrug and head turn, Romberg sign, Babinski reflex, Brudzinski sign, Kernig sign, positive Tinel sign and Phalen test for carpal tunnel syndrome, stereognosis, graphesthesia, dysdiadochokinesia, cerebellar ataxia, Romberg test for proprioception, positive Romberg sign, asterixis), musculoskeletal assessment (Trendelenburg test and Trendelenburg gait, rotator cuff tear drop arm test, impingement syndrome painful arc, Phalen maneuver, Tinel sign, thenar atrophy, ankle-brachial index, peripheral artery disease trophic changes, venous stasis ulcers, distal biceps tendon rupture), integumentary assessment (Cushing syndrome buffalo hump, moon face, purple striae; corticosteroid skin atrophy; spider angiomas and palmar erythema in liver disease; uremic frost; xanthelasma), head and neck assessment (thyroid bruit in Graves' disease, thyroglossal duct cyst, lymphadenopathy characteristics: malignant vs. reactive, Horner syndrome, carotid bruit), eye and ear assessment (papilledema, retinal artery occlusion cherry-red spot, nystagmus, Rinne and Weber tests), genitourinary and renal assessment (white blood cell casts in pyelonephritis, nephrolithiasis, hypercalciuria, hyperoxaluria, hypocitraturia, renal colic pathophysiology), and diagnostic reasoning (differentiating cardiac vs. reflux chest pain using PQRST, fluid responsiveness assessment, interpretation of CSF findings in bacterial vs. viral vs. fungal meningitis, xanthochromia in subarachnoid hemorrhage, acid-base interpretation in COPD exacerbation, hyperkalemia ECG changes peaked T waves and widened QRS, hypocalcemia Trousseau sign, hyperaldosteronism hypokalemia and metabolic alkalosis, diabetic ketoacidosis vs. hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state, myasthenia gravis vs. Lambert-Eaton syndrome). Each question is followed by the correct answer and a thorough explanation of the physical exam findings, pathophysiologic mechanisms, and clinical decision-making, making this an ideal resource for nursing students preparing for health assessment exams or clinical rotations

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NSG 3160
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NSG 3160

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NSG 3160 Exam 2 (PDF) | (2026) Health Assessment Questions |
Nursing Assessment, Exams of Nursing — 200 Questions and
Answers Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And
Verified


Subject Area Nursing Health Assessment

Description This exam covers advanced health assessment techniques for nursing practice,
focusing on systematic data collection, interpretation of clinical findings, and
integration of evidence-based screening across body systems. It emphasizes
diagnostic reasoning, cultural considerations, and ethical communication in
patient-centered care.

Expected Grade A+

Total Questions 200

Duration 3 hours

Learning Outcomes 1. Demonstrate comprehensive health history taking and physical examination
skills
2. Interpret assessment data to identify normal and abnormal findings
3. Apply evidence-based screening guidelines for various populations
4. Communicate assessment findings effectively in interdisciplinary settings

Accreditation Accredited by the Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education (CCNE) and
aligned with AACN Essentials of Baccalaureate Education for Professional
Nursing Practice.




Page 1

,1. During a comprehensive health assessment, a patient presents with a pulsatile
abdominal mass that is midline and approximately 5 cm in width. Which of the
following actions is most appropriate for the nurse to take?
A. Auscultate the mass for bruits using the bell of the stethoscope
B. Perform deep palpation to delineate the borders of the mass
C. Document the finding and schedule an elective ultrasound
D. Immediately notify the healthcare provider and defer further palpation
Answer: D. Immediately notify the healthcare provider and defer further palpation

A pulsatile abdominal mass suggests an abdominal aortic aneurysm (AAA). Deep
palpation can precipitate rupture; thus, the nurse should avoid palpation and promptly
notify the provider for urgent evaluation. Auscultation for bruits may be done gently
but is not the priority over preventing rupture.

2. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected peripheral artery disease. Which
combination of findings is most consistent with this condition?
A. Bounding pedal pulses, warm skin, and dependent rubor
B. Diminished femoral pulses, cool extremities, and hair loss on lower legs
C. Varicose veins, brownish skin discoloration, and stasis ulcers
D. Increased capillary refill, edema, and shiny skin
Answer: B. Diminished femoral pulses, cool extremities, and hair loss on lower legs

Peripheral artery disease (PAD) results from atherosclerosis, leading to reduced blood
flow. Classic signs include diminished pulses, cool skin, hair loss, and pallor on
elevation. Dependent rubor occurs with chronic severe ischemia but is not the primary
finding. Varicose veins and stasis ulcers are characteristic of venous insufficiency.

3. When performing a respiratory assessment, the nurse notes that a patient's
trachea is deviated to the left. Which condition is most likely to cause this finding?
A. Right-sided pleural effusion
B. Left-sided pneumothorax
C. Atelectasis of the left lung
D. Fibrosis of the right lung
Answer: A. Right-sided pleural effusion

Tracheal deviation occurs due to pressure differences in the thorax. A right-sided
pleural effusion pushes the trachea to the left. A left-sided pneumothorax would push
the trachea to the right. Atelectasis of the left lung would pull the trachea to the left, not
push. Fibrosis would also pull toward the affected side.




Page 2

,4. A nurse is assessing a patient who reports recent onset of double vision, drooping
eyelid, and muscle weakness that worsens with activity. Which neurological
assessment finding is most specific to this condition?
A. Positive Romberg test
B. Diplopia on lateral gaze
C. Absent deep tendon reflexes
D. Nystagmus on vertical gaze
Answer: B. Diplopia on lateral gaze

The symptoms described are classic for myasthenia gravis, an autoimmune disorder
affecting neuromuscular junctions. Diplopia (double vision) due to extraocular muscle
weakness is a common early sign. The Romberg test assesses proprioception, not
myasthenia. Reflexes are usually normal. Nystagmus is more typical of cerebellar or
vestibular disorders.

5. A patient with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents with a blood
pressure of 160/100 mm Hg in the right arm and 140/90 mm Hg in the left arm.
Which of the following is the most appropriate nursing action?
A. Record the average of both readings in the chart
B. Repeat the measurements using a larger cuff on both arms
C. Assess for subclavian stenosis or aortic coarctation
D. Use the lower reading for all subsequent assessments
Answer: C. Assess for subclavian stenosis or aortic coarctation

A significant inter-arm blood pressure difference (>10 mm Hg systolic) suggests
vascular pathology such as subclavian stenosis or coarctation of the aorta. The nurse
should report this finding for further evaluation. Averaging or ignoring the difference is
inappropriate. Using a larger cuff may be needed if arm circumference is large, but the
difference itself warrants investigation.




Page 3

, 6. During a cardiac assessment, the nurse auscultates a murmur that is loudest at the
apex, radiates to the left axilla, and is heard best with the patient in the left lateral
decubitus position. Which valvular abnormality is most consistent with these
findings?

A. Aortic stenosis
B. Mitral regurgitation
C. Tricuspid regurgitation
D. Pulmonic stenosis
Answer: B. Mitral regurgitation

Mitral regurgitation produces a holosystolic murmur at the apex that radiates to the
left axilla. The left lateral decubitus position brings the mitral valve closer to the chest
wall, accentuating the murmur. Aortic stenosis is best heard at the right upper sternal
border and may radiate to the carotids. Tricuspid regurgitation is heard at the left
lower sternal border. Pulmonic stenosis is at the left upper sternal border.

7. A nurse is assessing a patient's abdomen and notes a high-pitched, tinkling sound
on auscultation. Which condition is most likely associated with this finding?
A. Gastroenteritis
B. Early intestinal obstruction
C. Peritonitis
D. Ileus
Answer: B. Early intestinal obstruction

High-pitched, tinkling bowel sounds are characteristic of early intestinal obstruction as
peristalsis attempts to overcome the obstruction. Gastroenteritis typically presents with
hyperactive bowel sounds but not tinkling. Peritonitis and ileus often result in
hypoactive or absent bowel sounds.




Page 4

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