NSG 3160 Exam 3 (PDF) | (2026) Health Assessment Questions |
Nursing Assessment, Exams of Nursing — 200 Questions and
Answers Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And
Verified
Subject Area Nursing Health Assessment
Description This exam covers advanced health assessment techniques for nursing students,
focusing on systematic data collection, interpretation of clinical findings, and
differential diagnosis. It includes screenshots of assessment tools and patient data
that cannot be highlighted or copied.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 200
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Apply evidence-based assessment techniques across body systems
2. Integrate subjective and objective data to formulate nursing diagnoses
3. Differentiate normal from abnormal findings in diverse populations
4. Use clinical reasoning to prioritize assessments and interventions
Accreditation Accredited by the Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education (CCNE) and
consistent with AACN Essentials.
Page 1
,1. During a cardiac assessment, a nurse auscultates a high-pitched, blowing,
decrescendo diastolic murmur at the left sternal border. Which valvular abnormality
is most consistent with this finding?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Tricuspid regurgitation
D. Pulmonic stenosis
Answer: B. Aortic regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation produces a high-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur
best heard at the left sternal border. Mitral stenosis yields a low-pitched, rumbling
diastolic murmur with opening snap. Tricuspid regurgitation is systolic. Pulmonic
stenosis is systolic with ejection click.
2. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected peripheral artery disease. Which
combination of findings is most indicative of this condition?
A. Bounding pulses, warm skin, and dependent rubor
B. Diminished pulses, cool skin, and pallor on elevation
C. Edema, stasis dermatitis, and ulceration at medial malleolus
D. Palpable pulses, brownish discoloration, and thickened nails
Answer: B. Diminished pulses, cool skin, and pallor on elevation
Peripheral artery disease presents with diminished pulses, cool skin, pallor on elevation,
and dependent rubor. Options A and D suggest venous insufficiency. Option C describes
chronic venous stasis.
3. When assessing a patient with a history of COPD, the nurse notes a barrel chest,
hyperresonance on percussion, and distant breath sounds. Which pathophysiological
mechanism best explains these findings?
A. Increased lung compliance due to alveolar destruction
B. Decreased lung compliance due to fibrosis
C. Pleural effusion compressing lung tissue
D. Bronchospasm causing air trapping
Answer: A. Increased lung compliance due to alveolar destruction
In COPD, alveolar destruction reduces elastic recoil, increasing lung compliance. This
leads to hyperinflation (barrel chest), hyperresonance, and decreased breath sounds.
Fibrosis decreases compliance. Pleural effusion causes dullness. Bronchospasm alone
does not cause barrel chest.
Page 2
,4. A nurse is evaluating a patient's cranial nerve function. Which finding indicates
an abnormality of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?
A. Inability to shrug shoulders against resistance
B. Deviation of the uvula to one side
C. Loss of corneal reflex and decreased jaw jerk
D. Inability to smile symmetrically
Answer: C. Loss of corneal reflex and decreased jaw jerk
CN V provides motor innervation to muscles of mastication and sensory to face,
including cornea. Loss of corneal reflex and jaw jerk indicates CN V lesion. Shoulder
shrug is CN XI. Uvula deviation is CN X. Smile symmetry is CN VII.
5. A nurse inspects a wound and notes a beefy red granular base with copious
yellow-green drainage and a foul odor. Which type of wound healing is most likely
delayed?
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Angiogenesis
Answer: B. Secondary intention
Secondary intention healing occurs in wounds left open to granulate. The described
signs (beefy red granulation, purulent drainage) suggest infection delaying closure.
Primary intention involves clean surgical edges. Tertiary intention is delayed primary
closure. Angiogenesis is a component of healing, not a type.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient with a BMI of 32 who reports daytime sleepiness and
loud snoring. Which additional finding would most strongly suggest obstructive
sleep apnea?
A. Morning headache and witnessed apneas
B. Peripheral edema and elevated jugular venous pressure
C. Chest pain on exertion and ST depression on ECG
D. Frequent heartburn and regurgitation
Answer: A. Morning headache and witnessed apneas
Witnessed apneas and morning headaches are classic for obstructive sleep apnea due to
nocturnal hypoxia and hypercapnia. Peripheral edema and JVD suggest right heart
failure, a complication but not a diagnostic finding. Chest pain and ST depression
indicate cardiac ischemia. Heartburn is unrelated.
Page 3
, 7. A nurse performs a musculoskeletal assessment and finds that a patient's knee
jerk reflex is 3+ on a 0-4 scale. Which interpretation is correct?
A. Normal reflex
B. Hyperactive reflex, possibly indicative of upper motor neuron lesion
C. Hypoactive reflex, possibly indicative of lower motor neuron lesion
D. Clonus
Answer: B. Hyperactive reflex, possibly indicative of upper motor neuron lesion
On a 0-4 scale, 2+ is normal, 3+ is hyperactive (brisker than average but not necessarily
clonus), and 4+ is clonus. A 3+ reflex may indicate an upper motor neuron lesion if
asymmetric or accompanied by other signs. Hypoactive is 1+ or 0.
8. A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which
physical finding is most specific for this condition?
A. Pulsatile mass in the epigastric area
B. Bruit heard over the abdominal aorta
C. Diminished femoral pulses
D. Abdominal tenderness with guarding
Answer: A. Pulsatile mass in the epigastric area
A pulsatile mass in the epigastric area is the most specific finding for abdominal aortic
aneurysm. Bruit may occur with stenosis. Diminished femoral pulses can occur with
occlusive disease. Tenderness and guarding are nonspecific.
9. A nurse is assessing a patient who has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy.
Which skin finding is most likely to be observed?
A. Thickened, lichenified plaques
B. Thin, fragile skin with striae and purpura
C. Greasy, yellow scales on the scalp
D. Silvery scales on extensor surfaces
Answer: B. Thin, fragile skin with striae and purpura
Long-term corticosteroids cause skin atrophy, striae, and easy bruising (purpura).
Lichenified plaques are from chronic scratching. Greasy scales suggest seborrheic
dermatitis. Silvery scales are typical of psoriasis.
Page 4
Nursing Assessment, Exams of Nursing — 200 Questions and
Answers Already Graded A+ Premium Exam Tested And
Verified
Subject Area Nursing Health Assessment
Description This exam covers advanced health assessment techniques for nursing students,
focusing on systematic data collection, interpretation of clinical findings, and
differential diagnosis. It includes screenshots of assessment tools and patient data
that cannot be highlighted or copied.
Expected Grade A+
Total Questions 200
Duration 3 hours
Learning Outcomes 1. Apply evidence-based assessment techniques across body systems
2. Integrate subjective and objective data to formulate nursing diagnoses
3. Differentiate normal from abnormal findings in diverse populations
4. Use clinical reasoning to prioritize assessments and interventions
Accreditation Accredited by the Commission on Collegiate Nursing Education (CCNE) and
consistent with AACN Essentials.
Page 1
,1. During a cardiac assessment, a nurse auscultates a high-pitched, blowing,
decrescendo diastolic murmur at the left sternal border. Which valvular abnormality
is most consistent with this finding?
A. Mitral stenosis
B. Aortic regurgitation
C. Tricuspid regurgitation
D. Pulmonic stenosis
Answer: B. Aortic regurgitation
Aortic regurgitation produces a high-pitched, blowing, decrescendo diastolic murmur
best heard at the left sternal border. Mitral stenosis yields a low-pitched, rumbling
diastolic murmur with opening snap. Tricuspid regurgitation is systolic. Pulmonic
stenosis is systolic with ejection click.
2. A nurse is assessing a patient with suspected peripheral artery disease. Which
combination of findings is most indicative of this condition?
A. Bounding pulses, warm skin, and dependent rubor
B. Diminished pulses, cool skin, and pallor on elevation
C. Edema, stasis dermatitis, and ulceration at medial malleolus
D. Palpable pulses, brownish discoloration, and thickened nails
Answer: B. Diminished pulses, cool skin, and pallor on elevation
Peripheral artery disease presents with diminished pulses, cool skin, pallor on elevation,
and dependent rubor. Options A and D suggest venous insufficiency. Option C describes
chronic venous stasis.
3. When assessing a patient with a history of COPD, the nurse notes a barrel chest,
hyperresonance on percussion, and distant breath sounds. Which pathophysiological
mechanism best explains these findings?
A. Increased lung compliance due to alveolar destruction
B. Decreased lung compliance due to fibrosis
C. Pleural effusion compressing lung tissue
D. Bronchospasm causing air trapping
Answer: A. Increased lung compliance due to alveolar destruction
In COPD, alveolar destruction reduces elastic recoil, increasing lung compliance. This
leads to hyperinflation (barrel chest), hyperresonance, and decreased breath sounds.
Fibrosis decreases compliance. Pleural effusion causes dullness. Bronchospasm alone
does not cause barrel chest.
Page 2
,4. A nurse is evaluating a patient's cranial nerve function. Which finding indicates
an abnormality of the trigeminal nerve (CN V)?
A. Inability to shrug shoulders against resistance
B. Deviation of the uvula to one side
C. Loss of corneal reflex and decreased jaw jerk
D. Inability to smile symmetrically
Answer: C. Loss of corneal reflex and decreased jaw jerk
CN V provides motor innervation to muscles of mastication and sensory to face,
including cornea. Loss of corneal reflex and jaw jerk indicates CN V lesion. Shoulder
shrug is CN XI. Uvula deviation is CN X. Smile symmetry is CN VII.
5. A nurse inspects a wound and notes a beefy red granular base with copious
yellow-green drainage and a foul odor. Which type of wound healing is most likely
delayed?
A. Primary intention
B. Secondary intention
C. Tertiary intention
D. Angiogenesis
Answer: B. Secondary intention
Secondary intention healing occurs in wounds left open to granulate. The described
signs (beefy red granulation, purulent drainage) suggest infection delaying closure.
Primary intention involves clean surgical edges. Tertiary intention is delayed primary
closure. Angiogenesis is a component of healing, not a type.
6. A nurse is assessing a patient with a BMI of 32 who reports daytime sleepiness and
loud snoring. Which additional finding would most strongly suggest obstructive
sleep apnea?
A. Morning headache and witnessed apneas
B. Peripheral edema and elevated jugular venous pressure
C. Chest pain on exertion and ST depression on ECG
D. Frequent heartburn and regurgitation
Answer: A. Morning headache and witnessed apneas
Witnessed apneas and morning headaches are classic for obstructive sleep apnea due to
nocturnal hypoxia and hypercapnia. Peripheral edema and JVD suggest right heart
failure, a complication but not a diagnostic finding. Chest pain and ST depression
indicate cardiac ischemia. Heartburn is unrelated.
Page 3
, 7. A nurse performs a musculoskeletal assessment and finds that a patient's knee
jerk reflex is 3+ on a 0-4 scale. Which interpretation is correct?
A. Normal reflex
B. Hyperactive reflex, possibly indicative of upper motor neuron lesion
C. Hypoactive reflex, possibly indicative of lower motor neuron lesion
D. Clonus
Answer: B. Hyperactive reflex, possibly indicative of upper motor neuron lesion
On a 0-4 scale, 2+ is normal, 3+ is hyperactive (brisker than average but not necessarily
clonus), and 4+ is clonus. A 3+ reflex may indicate an upper motor neuron lesion if
asymmetric or accompanied by other signs. Hypoactive is 1+ or 0.
8. A nurse is assessing a patient with a suspected abdominal aortic aneurysm. Which
physical finding is most specific for this condition?
A. Pulsatile mass in the epigastric area
B. Bruit heard over the abdominal aorta
C. Diminished femoral pulses
D. Abdominal tenderness with guarding
Answer: A. Pulsatile mass in the epigastric area
A pulsatile mass in the epigastric area is the most specific finding for abdominal aortic
aneurysm. Bruit may occur with stenosis. Diminished femoral pulses can occur with
occlusive disease. Tenderness and guarding are nonspecific.
9. A nurse is assessing a patient who has been on long-term corticosteroid therapy.
Which skin finding is most likely to be observed?
A. Thickened, lichenified plaques
B. Thin, fragile skin with striae and purpura
C. Greasy, yellow scales on the scalp
D. Silvery scales on extensor surfaces
Answer: B. Thin, fragile skin with striae and purpura
Long-term corticosteroids cause skin atrophy, striae, and easy bruising (purpura).
Lichenified plaques are from chronic scratching. Greasy scales suggest seborrheic
dermatitis. Silvery scales are typical of psoriasis.
Page 4
