CSR PROFESSIONAL EXAM LATEST 2026/2027 CA LAWS,
TRANSCRIPTS, ETHICS, GRANDJURY, LATIN TERMS, DEPOSITION
RULES AND MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY COMPLETE ACCURATE
EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) A NEW
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+
|BRAND NEW!
1. A civil subpoena for business records in California must allow the witness at
least how many days to respond before the date of production?
A) 10 days
B) 15 days
C) 20 days (CORRECT ANSWER – Under California Code of Civil Procedure
§2020.410(c), a deposition subpoena for production of business records must
provide at least 20 days from the date of service for compliance, unless the court
orders a shorter time.)
D) 30 days
Rationale: The 20-day minimum ensures the records custodian reasonable time
to locate, copy, and produce records without undue burden, balancing discovery
needs with witness protection.
2. Which Latin term means “the thing speaks for itself” and applies when
negligence is inferred from an accident that ordinarily would not occur without
fault?
A) Res judicata
B) Res Ipas loquitur (CORRECT ANSWER – This doctrine shifts the burden to
the defendant to explain how the injury occurred, commonly used in medical
malpractice or falling object cases.)
C) Stare decisis
D) Sue sponge
Rationale: Res Ipas loquitur requires three elements: (1) the accident is of a kind
not occurring without negligence, (2) instrumentality was under defendant’s
control, and (3) plaintiff did not contribute to the cause.
,3. Under California law, a deposition officer for a non-stenographic deposition
(e.g., audio or video) must be:
A) A certified shorthand reporter
B) A person appointed by the court or agreed upon by the parties, who is not
disqualifying interested (CORRECT ANSWER – CCP §2025.330(b) allows any
person with no disqualifying interest to act as deposition officer for non-
stenographic recordings, provided the parties stipulate or court orders.)
C) A notary public only
D) A licensed attorney
Rationale: For stenographic depositions, a certified shorthand reporter is
required. But for electronic recordings, the officer need only be neutral and able
to operate equipment.
4. In a California grand jury proceeding, the target of an investigation:
A) Has the right to have counsel present inside the grand jury room
B) Has no right to have counsel present in the grand jury room but may step
outside to consult (CORRECT ANSWER – California Penal Code §939.5
prohibits counsel inside the grand jury room, but the witness may leave the room at
any time to confer with an attorney.)
C) May not refuse to answer on Fifth Amendment grounds
D) Must be given immunity before testifying
Rationale: Unlike a trial witness, a grand jury witness cannot have counsel
inside, but the right to consult outside preserves constitutional protections.
5. Which ethical rule prohibits a California lawyer from representing a client
directly adverse to a former client in a substantially related matter?
A) Duty of confidentiality
B) Conflict of interest under Rule 1.9 of the California Rules of Professional
Conduct (CORRECT ANSWER – Rule 1.9(a) forbids representation adverse to a
former client in the same or substantially related matter unless the former client
gives informed written consent.)
,C) Duty of candor to tribunal
D) Rule against fee-splitting
Rationale: The “substantial relationship” test presumes the lawyer received
confidential information that could harm the former client.
6. The medical term “hemiparesis” means:
A) Complete paralysis of one leg
B) Weakness on one side of the body (CORRECT ANSWER – “Hemi” (half) +
“paresis” (partial paralysis/weakness); common after stroke.)
C) Double vision
D) Rapid breathing
Rationale: Hemiparesis differs from hemiplegia (complete paralysis). Paresis
indicates partial loss of motor function.
7. Under California Code of Civil Procedure §2025.420, a motion to quash a
deposition notice must be filed:
A) Within 30 days of service of the notice
B) Before the deposition date or within the time specified for response,
whichever is earlier (CORRECT ANSWER – The statute mandates that a
motion to quash be made promptly, and no later than the deposition date, or the
objection is waived.)
C) Within 10 days after the deposition
D) Any time before trial
Rationale: Promptness is required to avoid waiver of objections to improper
notice or undue burden.
8. A California grand jury has the power to issue a report concerning the operations
of a public agency only if the report:
A) Names individual employees who are at fault
, B) Is based on evidence received during the investigation and does not accuse
a specific individual of a crime (CORRECT ANSWER – Penal Code §933 and
§933.05 allow grand jury reports on public agency operations, but they cannot
accuse identifiable persons of criminal conduct unless a true bill of indictment is
returned.)
C) Is approved by the district attorney
D) Contains no findings of fact
Rationale: Grand jury reports are civil in nature, recommending administrative
changes, not criminal accusations.
9. Which of the following Latin terms means “from the beginning” and is often
used when a contract is void ab initio?
A) Ex post facto
B) Ab initio (CORRECT ANSWER – “Ab” (from) + “initio” (beginning); a void
contract never had legal effect.)
C) In liming
D) Quid pro quo
Rationale: Ab initio contrasts with ex Nunc (from now on). A marriage that is
incestuous is void ab initio under Family Code §2200.
10. In a medical record, “SOAP” stands for:
A) Source, Observation, Assessment, Plan
B) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan (CORRECT ANSWER – Standard
medical documentation format for progress notes.)
C) Symptom, Origin, Action, Prescription
D) Surgery, Outcome, Aftercare, Protocol
Rationale: Subjective (patient reports), Objective (exam findings), Assessment
(diagnosis), Plan (treatment).
TRANSCRIPTS, ETHICS, GRANDJURY, LATIN TERMS, DEPOSITION
RULES AND MEDICAL TERMINOLOGY COMPLETE ACCURATE
EXAM ACTUAL QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS
WITH RATIONALES (100% CORRECT VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) A NEW
UPDATED VERSION 2026 EDITION |GUARANTEED SUCCESS A+
|BRAND NEW!
1. A civil subpoena for business records in California must allow the witness at
least how many days to respond before the date of production?
A) 10 days
B) 15 days
C) 20 days (CORRECT ANSWER – Under California Code of Civil Procedure
§2020.410(c), a deposition subpoena for production of business records must
provide at least 20 days from the date of service for compliance, unless the court
orders a shorter time.)
D) 30 days
Rationale: The 20-day minimum ensures the records custodian reasonable time
to locate, copy, and produce records without undue burden, balancing discovery
needs with witness protection.
2. Which Latin term means “the thing speaks for itself” and applies when
negligence is inferred from an accident that ordinarily would not occur without
fault?
A) Res judicata
B) Res Ipas loquitur (CORRECT ANSWER – This doctrine shifts the burden to
the defendant to explain how the injury occurred, commonly used in medical
malpractice or falling object cases.)
C) Stare decisis
D) Sue sponge
Rationale: Res Ipas loquitur requires three elements: (1) the accident is of a kind
not occurring without negligence, (2) instrumentality was under defendant’s
control, and (3) plaintiff did not contribute to the cause.
,3. Under California law, a deposition officer for a non-stenographic deposition
(e.g., audio or video) must be:
A) A certified shorthand reporter
B) A person appointed by the court or agreed upon by the parties, who is not
disqualifying interested (CORRECT ANSWER – CCP §2025.330(b) allows any
person with no disqualifying interest to act as deposition officer for non-
stenographic recordings, provided the parties stipulate or court orders.)
C) A notary public only
D) A licensed attorney
Rationale: For stenographic depositions, a certified shorthand reporter is
required. But for electronic recordings, the officer need only be neutral and able
to operate equipment.
4. In a California grand jury proceeding, the target of an investigation:
A) Has the right to have counsel present inside the grand jury room
B) Has no right to have counsel present in the grand jury room but may step
outside to consult (CORRECT ANSWER – California Penal Code §939.5
prohibits counsel inside the grand jury room, but the witness may leave the room at
any time to confer with an attorney.)
C) May not refuse to answer on Fifth Amendment grounds
D) Must be given immunity before testifying
Rationale: Unlike a trial witness, a grand jury witness cannot have counsel
inside, but the right to consult outside preserves constitutional protections.
5. Which ethical rule prohibits a California lawyer from representing a client
directly adverse to a former client in a substantially related matter?
A) Duty of confidentiality
B) Conflict of interest under Rule 1.9 of the California Rules of Professional
Conduct (CORRECT ANSWER – Rule 1.9(a) forbids representation adverse to a
former client in the same or substantially related matter unless the former client
gives informed written consent.)
,C) Duty of candor to tribunal
D) Rule against fee-splitting
Rationale: The “substantial relationship” test presumes the lawyer received
confidential information that could harm the former client.
6. The medical term “hemiparesis” means:
A) Complete paralysis of one leg
B) Weakness on one side of the body (CORRECT ANSWER – “Hemi” (half) +
“paresis” (partial paralysis/weakness); common after stroke.)
C) Double vision
D) Rapid breathing
Rationale: Hemiparesis differs from hemiplegia (complete paralysis). Paresis
indicates partial loss of motor function.
7. Under California Code of Civil Procedure §2025.420, a motion to quash a
deposition notice must be filed:
A) Within 30 days of service of the notice
B) Before the deposition date or within the time specified for response,
whichever is earlier (CORRECT ANSWER – The statute mandates that a
motion to quash be made promptly, and no later than the deposition date, or the
objection is waived.)
C) Within 10 days after the deposition
D) Any time before trial
Rationale: Promptness is required to avoid waiver of objections to improper
notice or undue burden.
8. A California grand jury has the power to issue a report concerning the operations
of a public agency only if the report:
A) Names individual employees who are at fault
, B) Is based on evidence received during the investigation and does not accuse
a specific individual of a crime (CORRECT ANSWER – Penal Code §933 and
§933.05 allow grand jury reports on public agency operations, but they cannot
accuse identifiable persons of criminal conduct unless a true bill of indictment is
returned.)
C) Is approved by the district attorney
D) Contains no findings of fact
Rationale: Grand jury reports are civil in nature, recommending administrative
changes, not criminal accusations.
9. Which of the following Latin terms means “from the beginning” and is often
used when a contract is void ab initio?
A) Ex post facto
B) Ab initio (CORRECT ANSWER – “Ab” (from) + “initio” (beginning); a void
contract never had legal effect.)
C) In liming
D) Quid pro quo
Rationale: Ab initio contrasts with ex Nunc (from now on). A marriage that is
incestuous is void ab initio under Family Code §2200.
10. In a medical record, “SOAP” stands for:
A) Source, Observation, Assessment, Plan
B) Subjective, Objective, Assessment, Plan (CORRECT ANSWER – Standard
medical documentation format for progress notes.)
C) Symptom, Origin, Action, Prescription
D) Surgery, Outcome, Aftercare, Protocol
Rationale: Subjective (patient reports), Objective (exam findings), Assessment
(diagnosis), Plan (treatment).
