Foundations In Microbiology 6th Edition By -Kathleen Park Talaro -Test Bank.,WELL EXPLAINED

1. The Five I’s of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A. inoculation. B. incubation. C. infection. D. isolation. E. identification. 2. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except A. broth. B. enriched. C. agar. D. petri dish. E. gelatin. 3. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is A. isolation. B. inoculation. C. immunization. D. infection. E. contamination. 4. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? A. broth medium B. differential medium C. selective medium D. solid medium E. assay medium 5. A pure culture contains only A. one species of microorganism. B. bacteria. C. a variety of microbes from one source. D. a variety of species from the same genus. E. None of the choices are correct. 6. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A. a pure culture B. a mixed culture C. a solid medium D. a liquid medium E. a contaminated medium 7. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential. 8. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential. 9. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface? A. streak plate. B. spread plate. C. pour plate. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. 10. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is A. blood agar. B. trypticase soy agar. C. mannitol salt agar. D. MacConkey medium. E. a reducing medium. 11. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed A. complex. B. reducing. C. enriched. D. enumeration. E. synthetic. 12. A reducing medium contains A. sugars that can be fermented. B. extra oxygen. C. hemoglobin, vitamins or other growth factors. D. substances that remove oxygen. E. inhibiting agents. 13. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A. differential B. selective C. enumeration D. enriched E. reducing 14. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycollic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? A. fastidious B. gram positive C. anaerobe D. gram negative E. virus 15. For which bacterial genus is mannitol salt agar selective? A. Salmonella B. Streptococcus C. Neisseria D. Staphylococcus E. Escherichia 16. A microbiologist must culture a patient’s feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? A. NaCl B. sheep red blood cells C. bile salts D. thioglycollic acid E. peptone 17. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope’s ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A. resolving power B. magnification C. refraction D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. 18. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? A. condenser B. objective lens C. ocular lens D. body E. nosepiece 19. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A. 100X B. 950X C. 85X D. 850X E. 95X 20. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2µm except A. 0.2 µm. B. 0.2 mm. C. 0.1 µm. D. 0.3 µm. E. 2.0 µm. 21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperature governs A. illumination. B. resolution. C. magnification. D. size of the field. E. All of the choices are correct. 22. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A. bright-field. B. dark-field. C. phase-contrast. D. fluorescence. E. electron. 23. This microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image: A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 24. This microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification: A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 25. This microscope shows cells against a bright background and also shows intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities: A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 26. This microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background: A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron 27. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it A. uses electron’s to produce a specimen image. B. type of compound microscope. C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. D. commonly used to diagnose certain infections. E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source. 28. Which is incorrect about chocolate agar? A. It can be used to cultivate Neisseria. B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated. C. It has chocolate extract in it. D. It is an enriched medium. E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria. 29. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A. fluorescence B. differential interference contrast C. scanning electron D. transmission electron E. phase-contrast 30. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A. hanging drop. B. fixed stained smear. C. gram stain. D. negative stain. E. flagellar stain. 31. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to A. kill them. B. secure them to the slide. C. enlarge the cells. D. add contrast in order to see them better. E. see motility. 32. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain and endospore stain have the following in common: A. used on a wet mount of the specimen B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures C. outcome based on cell wall differences D. use a negative stain technique E. are differential stains 33. Basic dyes are A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells. B. anionic. C. used in negative staining. D. repelled by cells. E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin. 34. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler’s methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of A. negative staining. B. using an acidic dye. C. simple staining. D. using the acid-fast stain. E. capsule staining. 35. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals or yeasts are A. synthetic. B. complex. C. reducing. D. enriched. E. All of the choices are correct. 36. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA) and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media? A. synthetic B. reducing C. enriched D. nonsynthetic E. selective 37. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called A. fastidious. B. pathogenic. C. harmless. D. anaerobic. E. aerobic. 38. A media is designed that allows only Staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is A. selective only. B. differential only. C. both selective and differential. D. a reducing media. E. enriched. 39. All of the following are examples of basic dyes except A. methylene blue. B. nigrosin. C. crystal violet. D. safranin. E. fuchsin. 40. Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile? A. SIM B. MacConkey C. Enriched media D. Thayer-Martin media E. Chocolate agar 41. All of the following are correct about agar except A. it is flexible. B. it melts at the boiling point of water (100oC). C. it is a source of nutrition for bacteria. D. it solidifies below 42oC. E. it is solid at room temperature. 42. Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi? A. Sabouraud’s agar B. MacConkey agar C. Tomato juice agar D. Phenylethanol agar E. Mueller tellurite 43. Which of the following puts the Five “I”s in their correct order? A. inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification B. isolation, inspection, inoculation, incubation, identification C. incubation, inspection, isolation, identification, inoculation D. inspection, identification, isolation, incubation, inoculation E. inspection, isolation, incubation, inoculation, identification 44. Why is oil of immersion often used when viewing specimens under the microscope? A. to stain the cells blue B. to prevent the smear from drying out C. to slow bacterial movement so you can see cells better D. to increase the resolution E. to reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source 45. The procedures for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope. True False 46. One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells. True False 47. Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media. True False 48. Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. True False 49. A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. True False 50. A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes. True False 51. A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an anaerobe. True False 52. Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens. True False 53. The bending of light rays as they pass form one medium to another is called refraction. True False 54. At the end of the Gram stain, gram positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells. True False 55. Scanning tunneling and atomic force microscopes are used to image the detailed structure of biological molecules. True False 56. The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the . 57. The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and . 58. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed . 59. _ _ is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony. 60. Newly inoculated cultures must be _ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth. 61. Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the lens. This image is then projected to the lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. 62. The _ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. 63. _ _ dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells. 64. _ _ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens. 65. Compare and contrast the reagents and functions of negative staining versus positive staining. 66. Explain the difference and significance between a contaminated culture and a mixed culture. 67. A contaminated food sample contains several different species of bacteria. A food microbiologist is interested in studying just one of these species. Describe the sequence of procedures that the microbiologist must perform in order to obtain a pure culture of the bacterial species of interest from this food sample. Detail all the necessary media and equipment. 68. Explain how and why immersion oil increases resolution but not magnification when using the 100X objective. 3 Key 1. The Five I’s of studying microorganisms include all of the following except A. inoculation. B. incubation. C. infection. D. isolation. E. identification. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #1 2. All of the following are examples of different types of microbiological media except A. broth. B. enriched. C. agar. D. petri dish. E. gelatin. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #2 3. The term that refers to the purposeful addition of microorganisms into a laboratory nutrient medium is A. isolation. B. inoculation. C. immunization. D. infection. E. contamination. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #3 4. Which of the following is essential for development of discrete, isolated colonies? A.broth medium B. differential medium C. selective medium D. solid medium E. assay medium Talaro – 003 Chapter… #4 5. A pure culture contains only A. one species of microorganism. B. bacteria. C. a variety of microbes from one source. D. a variety of species from the same genus. E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #5 6. Which of the following will result when 1% to 5% agar is added to nutrient broth, boiled and cooled? A.a pure culture B. a mixed culture C. a solid medium D. a liquid medium E. a contaminated medium Talaro – 003 Chapter… #6 7. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus aureus into a culture medium. Following incubation, both Staphylococcus aureus and Staphylococcus epidermidis are determined to be growing in this culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #7 8. A microbiologist inoculates Staphylococcus epidermidis and Escherichia coli into a culture medium. Following incubation, only the E. coli grows in the culture. What is the most likely explanation? A. The microbiologist used too much inoculum. B. The culture is contaminated. C. The incubation temperature was incorrect. D. The culture medium must be selective. E. The culture medium must be differential. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #8 9. Which method often results in colonies developing down throughout the agar and some colonies on the surface? A. streak plate. B. spread plate. C. pour plate. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #9 10. A common medium used for growing fastidious bacteria is A. blood agar. B. trypticase soy agar. C. mannitol salt agar. D. MacConkey medium. E. a reducing medium. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #10 11. A nutrient medium that has all of its chemical components identified and their precise concentrations known and reproducible, would be termed A. complex. B. reducing. C. enriched. D. enumeration. E. synthetic. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #11 12. A reducing medium contains A.sugars that can be fermented. B. extra oxygen. C. hemoglobin, vitamins or other growth factors. D. substances that remove oxygen. E. inhibiting agents. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #12 13. Which type of medium is able to distinguish different species or types of microorganisms based on an observable change in the colonies or in the medium? A. differential B. selective C. enumeration D. enriched E. reducing Talaro – 003 Chapter… #13 14. A microbiologist decides to use a nutrient medium that contains thioglycollic acid. What type of microbe is she attempting to culture? A. fastidious B. gram positive C. anaerobe D. gram negative E. virus Talaro – 003 Chapter… #14 15. For which bacterial genus is mannitol salt agar selective? A.Salmonella B. Streptococcus C. Neisseria D. Staphylococcus E. Escherichia Talaro – 003 Chapter… #15 16. A microbiologist must culture a patient’s feces for intestinal pathogens. Which of the following would likely be present in selective media for analyzing this fecal specimen? A.NaCl B. sheep red blood cells C. bile salts D. thioglycollic acid E. peptone Talaro – 003 Chapter… #16 17. Which of the following characteristics refers to the microscope’s ability to show two separate entities as separate and distinct? A. resolving power B. magnification C. refraction D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #17 18. Which of the following magnifies the specimen to produce the real image of the specimen? A.condenser B. objective lens C. ocular lens D. body E. nosepiece Talaro – 003 Chapter… #18 19. If a microbiologist is studying a specimen at a total magnification of 950X, what is the magnifying power of the objective lens if the ocular lens is 10X? A. 0X B. 950X C. 85X D. 850X E. 95X Talaro – 003 Chapter… #19 20. All of the following are diameters of cells that would be resolved in a microscope with a limit of resolution of 0.2µm except A. 0.2 µm. B. 0.2 mm. C. 0.1 µm. D. 0.3 µm. E. 2.0 µm. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #20 21. The wavelength of light used plus the numerical aperature governs A.illumination. B. resolution. C. magnification. D. size of the field. E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #21 22. The type of microscope in which you would see brightly illuminated specimens against a black background is A. bright-field. B. dark-field. C. phase-contrast. D. fluorescence. E. electron. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #22 23. This microscope does not use light in forming the specimen image: A.bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron Talaro – 003 Chapter… #23 24. This microscope achieves the greatest resolution and highest magnification: A.bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron Talaro – 003 Chapter… #24 25. This microscope shows cells against a bright background and also shows intracellular structures of unstained cells based on their varying densities: A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron Talaro – 003 Chapter… #25 26. This microscope is the most widely used and shows cells against a bright background: A. bright-field B. dark-field C. phase-contrast D. fluorescence E. electron Talaro – 003 Chapter… #26 27. All of the following pertain to the fluorescence microscope except it A. uses electron’s to produce a specimen image. B. type of compound microscope. C. requires the use of dyes like acridine and fluorescein. D. commonly used to diagnose certain infections. E. requires an ultraviolet radiation source. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #27 28. Which is incorrect about chocolate agar? A.It can be used to cultivate Neisseria. B. It usually uses sheep blood that has been heated. C. It has chocolate extract in it. D. It is an enriched medium. E. It is used to grow fastidious bacteria. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #28 29. Which microscope bombards a whole, metal-coated specimen with electrons moving back and forth over it? A. fluorescence B. differential interference contrast C. scanning electron D. transmission electron E. phase-contrast Talaro – 003 Chapter… #29 30. The specimen preparation that is best for viewing cell motility is A. hanging drop. B. fixed stained smear. C. gram stain. D. negative stain. E. flagellar stain. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #30 31. The primary purpose of staining cells on a microscope slide is to A.kill them. B. secure them to the slide. C. enlarge the cells. D. add contrast in order to see them better. E. see motility. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #31 32. The Gram stain, acid-fast stain and endospore stain have the following in common: A.used on a wet mount of the specimen B. use heat to force the dye into cell structures C. outcome based on cell wall differences D. use a negative stain technique E. are differential stains Talaro – 003 Chapter… #32 33. Basic dyes are A. attracted to the acidic substances of bacterial cells. B. anionic. C. used in negative staining. D. repelled by cells. E. dyes such as India ink and nigrosin. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #33 34. A microbiologist makes a fixed smear of bacterial cells and stains them with Loeffler’s methylene blue. All the cells appear blue under the oil lens. This is an example of A.negative staining. B. using an acidic dye. C. simple staining. D. using the acid-fast stain. E. capsule staining. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #34 35. Media that contains extracts from plants, animals or yeasts are A.synthetic. B. complex. C. reducing. D. enriched. E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #35 36. Brain-heart infusion, trypticase soy agar (TSA) and nutrient agar are all examples of which type of media? A. synthetic B. reducing C. enriched D. nonsynthetic E. selective Talaro – 003 Chapter… #36 37. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex organic substances are called A. fastidious. B. pathogenic. C. harmless. D. anaerobic. E. aerobic. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #37 38. A media is designed that allows only Staphylococci to grow. In addition, S. aureus colonies have a yellow halo around them and other staphylococci appear white. This type of media is A.selective only. B. differential only. C. both selective and differential. D. a reducing media. E. enriched. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #38 39. All of the following are examples of basic dyes except A.methylene blue. B. nigrosin. C. crystal violet. D. safranin. E. fuchsin. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #39 40. Which type of media can be used to determine if a bacteria is motile? A.SIM B. MacConkey C. Enriched media D. Thayer-Martin media E. Chocolate agar Talaro – 003 Chapter… #40 41. All of the following are correct about agar except A. it is flexible. B. it melts at the boiling point of water (100oC). C. it is a source of nutrition for bacteria. D. it solidifies below 42oC. E. it is solid at room temperature. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #41 42. Which of the following media is useful for cultivating fungi? A. Sabouraud’s agar B. MacConkey agar C. Tomato juice agar D. Phenylethanol agar E. Mueller tellurite Talaro – 003 Chapter… #42 43. Which of the following puts the Five “I”s in their correct order? A. inoculation, incubation, isolation, inspection, identification B. isolation, inspection, inoculation, incubation, identification C. incubation, inspection, isolation, identification, inoculation D. inspection, identification, isolation, incubation, inoculation E. inspection, isolation, incubation, inoculation, identification Talaro – 003 Chapter… #43 44. Why is oil of immersion often used when viewing specimens under the microscope? A.to stain the cells blue B. to prevent the smear from drying out C. to slow bacterial movement so you can see cells better D. to increase the resolution E. to reduce the amount of heat reaching the slide from the light source Talaro – 003 Chapter… #44 45. The procedures for culturing a microorganism requires the use of a microscope. FALSE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #45 46. One colony typically develops from the growth of several parent bacterial cells. FALSE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #46 47. Some microbes are not capable of growing on artificial media. TRUE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #47 48. Mixed cultures are also referred to as contaminated cultures. FALSE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #48 49. A medium that is gel-like has less agar in it compared to a solid medium. TRUE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #49 50. A selective medium contains one or more substances that inhibit growth of certain microbes in order to facilitate the growth of other microbes. TRUE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #50 51. A bacterial species that grows on blood agar but will not grow on trypticase soy agar is termed an anaerobe. FALSE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #51 52. Fixed smears of specimens are required in order to perform the Gram stain and endospore stain on the specimens. TRUE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #52 53. The bending of light rays as they pass form one medium to another is called refraction. TRUE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #53 54. At the end of the Gram stain, gram positive bacteria will be seen as purple cells. TRUE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #54 55. Scanning tunneling and atomic force microscopes are used to image the detailed structure of biological molecules. TRUE Talaro – 003 Chapter… #55 56. The correct microbiological term for the tiny sample of specimen that is put into a nutrient medium in order to produce a culture is the . Inoculum Talaro – 003 Chapter… #56 57. The three physical forms of laboratory media are: solid, semisolid, and . Liquid Talaro – 003 Chapter… #57 58. Bacteria that require special growth factors and complex nutrients are termed . Fastidious Talaro – 003 Chapter… #58 59. _ _ is the term for a culture made from one isolated colony. Subculture Talaro – 003 Chapter… #59 60. Newly inoculated cultures must be _ at a specific temperature and time to encourage growth. Incubated Talaro – 003 Chapter… #60 61. Magnification is achieved in a compound microscope through the initial magnification of the specimen by the lens. This image is then projected to the lens that will further magnify the specimen to form a virtual image received by the eye. Objective, Ocular Talaro – 003 Chapter… #61 62. The _ of the microscope holds and allows selection of the objective lenses. Nosepiece Talaro – 003 Chapter… #62 63. _ _ dyes have a negative charge on the chromophore and are repelled by bacterial cells. Acidic Talaro – 003 Chapter… #63 64. _ _ has the same optical qualities as glass and thus prevents refractive loss of light as it passes from the slide to the objective lens. Immersion Oil Talaro – 003 Chapter… #64 65. Compare and contrast the reagents and functions of negative staining versus positive staining. Answers may vary. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #65 66. Explain the difference and significance between a contaminated culture and a mixed culture. Answers may vary. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #66 67. A contaminated food sample contains several different species of bacteria. A food microbiologist is interested in studying just one of these species. Describe the sequence of procedures that the microbiologist must perform in order to obtain a pure culture of the bacterial species of interest from this food sample. Detail all the necessary media and equipment. Answers may vary. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #67 68. Explain how and why immersion oil increases resolution but not magnification when using the 100X objective. Answers may vary. Talaro – 003 Chapter… #68 3 Summary 5 Student: _ 1. Protists include A. yeasts and molds. B. algae and protozoa. C. helminths. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. 2. The eucaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the A. nucleus. B. golgi apparatus. C. mitochondria. D. lysosome. E. ribosome. 3. Eucaryotic flagella differ from procaryotic flagella because only eucaryotic flagella A. are used for cell motility. B. facilitate chemotaxis. C. facilitate phototaxis. D. are long whip-like structures. E. contain microtubules. 4. Cilia are found in certain A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of the choices are correct. 5. Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of the choices are correct. 6. Cell walls are not found on typical cells of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of the choices are correct. 7. The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the A. ribosome. B. nucleolus. C. nucleus. D. golgi apparatus. E. lysosome. 8. When a eucaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible thread-like mass called the A. nuclear envelope. B. nucleosome. C. nucleolus. D. nucleoplasm. E. chromatin. 9. Histones are A. found in polyribosomes. B. enzymes found in lysosomes. C. proteins of the cytoskeleton. D. proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus. E. on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum. 10. The eucaryotic cell’s glycocalyx is A. mostly polysaccharide. B. the site where many metabolic reactions occur. C. also called the cell wall. D. composed of many diverse proteins. E. protection against osmotic lysis. 11. Which of the following is found in eucaryotic cells but not in procaryotic cells? A. nucleus B. mitochondria C. endoplasmic reticulum D. lysosomes E. All of the choices are correct. 12. The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eucaryotic cells acquired flagella by endosymbiosis with a _ ancestor, and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a _ ancestor. A. protozoan, algae B. archaea, cyanobacteria C. spirochete, cyanobacteria D. helminth, algae E. None of the choices are correct. 13. The cell’s series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. 14. An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. 15. Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found? A. mitochondria B. lysosomes C. golgi apparatus D. chloroplasts E. endoplasmic reticulum 16. Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. 17. Protists with contractile vacuoles A. are algae. B. use them to expel excess water from the cell. C. typically live in salty seawater. D. use them for motility. E. All of the choices are correct. 18. The cytoskeleton A. anchors organelles. B. provides support. C. functions in movements of the cytoplasm. D. helps maintain cell shape. E. All of the choices are correct. 19. The size of a eucaryotic cell ribosome is A. 30S. B. 40S. C. 50S. D. 70S. E. 80S. 20. Filamentous fungi are called A. pseudohyphae. B. septa. C. molds. D. dimorphic. E. mycelium. 21. When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called A. pseudohyphae. B. septa. C. molds. D. dimorphic. E. mycelium. 22. Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called A. dimorphic. B. saprobes. C. pseudohyphae. D. spores. E. Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycota). 23. Fungal spores A. are only produced under harmful environmental conditions. B. are only asexually produced. C. cannot be seen in a light microscope. D. are produced by molds but not by yeasts. E. are used to identify fungi. 24. Which of the following spores are produced within a sac? A. chlamydospores B. sporangiospores C. blastospores D. arthrospores E. zygospores 25. Which of the following spores are sexually produced? A. chlamydospores B. sporangiospores C. blastospores D. arthrospores E. zygospores 26. A mold is observed to have asexual conidia, sexual spores within a sac, and septate hyphae. It is most likely classified in the A. Zygomycota. B. Ascomycota. C. Basidiomycota. D. Deuteromycota. E. Fungi Imperfecti. 27. What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common? A. They are enclosed in a sac. B. They are types of conidia. C. They are sexual spores. D. They are found only in molds. E. All of the choices are correct. 28. Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A. cells have cell walls B. photosynthetic C. include single-celled and filamentous forms D. heterotrophic nutrition E. can use a wide variety of nutrients 29. Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except A. paralytic shellfish poisoning. B. red tides. C. ciguatera. D. Pfiesteria piscicida. E. euglenids. 30. Which is mismatched? A. Pyrrophyta – euglenids B. Chrysophyta – diatoms C. Phaeophyta – brown algae D. Rhodophyta – red seaweed E. Chlorophyta – green algae 31. All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except A. motility. B. ectoplasm and endoplasm. C. heterotrophic nutrition. D. formation of a cyst stage. E. cell wall. 32. The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the A. trophozoite. B. cyst. C. sporozoite. D. oocyst. E. food vacuole. 33. The group of protozoa that have flagella are the A. Sarcodina. B. Ciliophora. C. Mastigophora. D. Apicomplexa. E. None of the choices are correct. 34. Which is mismatched? A. Giardia – transmitted by feces in drinking water B. Histoplasma – causes Ohio Valley fever C. Trichomonas – sexually transmitted D. Plasmodium – causes Chagas disease E. Saccharomyces – yeast in making bread and beer 35. All of the following are helminths except A. pinworms. B. flukes. C. trypanosomes. D. roundworms. E. tapeworms. 36. Which of the following does not pertain to helminths? A. in kingdom Protista B. parasitic worms C. eggs and sperm for reproduction D. often alternate hosts in complex life cycles E. have various organ systems 37. Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. helminths. D. fungi. E. None of the choices are correct. 38. All of the following groups of algae contain cellulose in their cell walls except A. Chlorophyta. B. Rhodophyta. C. Euglenophyta. D. Phaeophyta. E. All of the choices contain cellulose. 39. The stacks of thylakoids in a chloroplast are called A. grana. B. stroma. C. mesosomes. D. cristae. E. packages. 40. In order to reproduce sexually, diploid cells must produce gametes through _. A. diploid, mitosis B. diploid, meiosis C. haploid, mitosis D. haploid, meiosis E. triploid, mitosis 41. 41.The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of _ . A. glycogen B. proteins C. glucose D. nucleic acids E. lipids 42. You are looking at cells undergoing mitosis and see the chromosomes have lined up in the middle of the cell. What stage is this? A. interphase B. anaphase C. telophase D. metaphase E. prophase 43. On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota? A. Based on their ability to cause diseases in animals. B. Based on whether they have a cap containing gills. C. Based on if the fungus lacks a sexual state. D. Based on if they have a special fungal sac. E. Based on if they can grow in acidic soil. 44. Which of the following is the cause of malaria? A. Toxoplasma gondii B. Plasmodium C. Giardia D. Leishmania E. Trypanosoma 45. Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except A. infected animals. B. contaminated food. C. contaminated water. D. contaminated soil. E. contaminated air. 46. All of the following are correct about helminthes except A. they generally make only a few eggs per day. B. they are not all parasites, although some are. C. as parasites, their reproductive organs are their most developed organs. D. their eggs and larvae are vulnerable to heat. E. tapeworms and pinworms are two examples. 47. The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the A. Golgi apparatus. B. lysosomes. C. cisternae. D. transitional vesicles. E. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. 48. Chromosomes are not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. True False 49. Eucaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. True False 50. The eucaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. True False 51. Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. True False 52. The only Division of fungi that contains human pathogens is the Deuteromycota. True False 53. All fungi have hyphae. True False 54. All algae have chloroplasts. True False 55. Algae are classified into Divisions based principally on their type of motility. True False 56. Plankton are floating communities of helminths. True False 57. Biologists have found evidence that eucaryotic cells evolved from procaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular _ _. 58. There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _ found inside eucaryotic flagella and cilia. 59. The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear . 60. The presence of a double, matched set of chromosomes is referred to as the state. 61. A originates from the golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion. 62. Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called . 63. In eucaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered in the , and on the surface of _. 64. The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called _ . 65. During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a _. 66. Discuss in detail, at least four reasons why fungi belong in their own kingdom instead of the kingdoms Plantae or Protista. 67. Compare and contrast the yeasts and molds with regard to: a) microscopic cellular morphology, b) macroscopic colony morphology, and c) reproduction. 68. Compare and contrast protozoan cysts, fungal spores, and bacterial endospores with regard to: a) the factors that stimulate their formation, b) their structure, and c) their function. 69. Discuss the role of specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease. 70. Compare and contrast the morphology of Cestodes, Trematodes, and Nematodes. 5 Key 1. Protists include A.yeasts and molds. B. algae and protozoa. C. helminths. D. All of the choices are correct. E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #1 2. The eucaryotic cell organelle that most resembles a bacterial cell is the A.nucleus. B. golgi apparatus. C. mitochondria. D. lysosome. E. ribosome. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #2 3. Eucaryotic flagella differ from procaryotic flagella because only eucaryotic flagella A.are used for cell motility. B. facilitate chemotaxis. C. facilitate phototaxis. D. are long whip-like structures. E. contain microtubules. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #3 4. Cilia are found in certain A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #4 5. Chitin is a chemical component of the cell walls of A.protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #5 6. Cell walls are not found on typical cells of A. protozoa. B. algae. C. fungi. D. bacteria. E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #6 7. The site for ribosomal RNA synthesis is the A.ribosome. B. nucleolus. C. nucleus. D. golgi apparatus. E. lysosome. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #7 8. When a eucaryotic cell is not undergoing mitosis, the DNA and its associated proteins appear as a visible thread-like mass called the A. nuclear envelope. B. nucleosome. C. nucleolus. D. nucleoplasm. E. chromatin. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #8 9. Histones are A. found in polyribosomes. B. enzymes found in lysosomes. C. proteins of the cytoskeleton. D. proteins associated with DNA in the nucleus. E. on the surface of rough endoplasmic reticulum. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #9 10. The eucaryotic cell’s glycocalyx is A. mostly polysaccharide. B. the site where many metabolic reactions occur. C. also called the cell wall. D. composed of many diverse proteins. E. protection against osmotic lysis. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #10 11. Which of the following is found in eucaryotic cells but not in procaryotic cells? A.nucleus B. mitochondria C. endoplasmic reticulum D. lysosomes E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #11 12. The endosymbiotic theory says that precursor eucaryotic cells acquired flagella by endosymbiosis with a _ ancestor, and others gained photosynthetic ability from endosymbiosis with a _ ancestor. A. protozoan, algae B. archaea, cyanobacteria C. spirochete, cyanobacteria D. helminth, algae E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #12 13. The cell’s series of tunnel-like membranes functioning in transport and storage are the A.mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #13 14. An organelle that is a stack of flattened, membranous sacs and functions to receive, modify, and package proteins for cell secretion is the A. mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #14 15. Which organelle contains cristae where enzymes and electron carriers for aerobic respiration are found? A. mitochondria B. lysosomes C. golgi apparatus D. chloroplasts E. endoplasmic reticulum Talaro – 005 Chapter… #15 16. Organelles found in algae but not found in protozoa or fungi are the A.mitochondria. B. lysosomes. C. golgi apparatus. D. chloroplasts. E. endoplasmic reticulum. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #16 17. Protists with contractile vacuoles A.are algae. B. use them to expel excess water from the cell. C. typically live in salty seawater. D. use them for motility. E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #17 18. The cytoskeleton A.anchors organelles. B. provides support. C. functions in movements of the cytoplasm. D. helps maintain cell shape. E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #18 19. The size of a eucaryotic cell ribosome is A.30S. B. 40S. C. 50S. D. 70S. E. 80S. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #19 20. Filamentous fungi are called A.pseudohyphae. B. septa. C. molds. D. dimorphic. E. mycelium. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #20 21. When buds remain attached, they form a chain of yeast cells called A. pseudohyphae. B. septa. C. molds. D. dimorphic. E. mycelium. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #21 22. Fungi that grow as yeast at one temperature but will grow as mold at another temperature are called A. dimorphic. B. saprobes. C. pseudohyphae. D. spores. E. Fungi Imperfecti (Deuteromycota). Talaro – 005 Chapter… #22 23. Fungal spores A. are only produced under harmful environmental conditions. B. are only asexually produced. C. cannot be seen in a light microscope. D. are produced by molds but not by yeasts. E. are used to identify fungi. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #23 24. Which of the following spores are produced within a sac? A.chlamydospores B. sporangiospores C. blastospores D. arthrospores E. zygospores Talaro – 005 Chapter… #24 25. Which of the following spores are sexually produced? A.chlamydospores B. sporangiospores C. blastospores D. arthrospores E. zygospores Talaro – 005 Chapter… #25 26. A mold is observed to have asexual conidia, sexual spores within a sac, and septate hyphae. It is most likely classified in the A. Zygomycota. B. Ascomycota. C. Basidiomycota. D. Deuteromycota. E. Fungi Imperfecti. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #26 27. What do zygospores, ascospores, and basidiospores have in common? A.They are enclosed in a sac. B. They are types of conidia. C. They are sexual spores. D. They are found only in molds. E. All of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #27 28. Which is not a characteristic of fungi? A.cells have cell walls B. photosynthetic C. include single-celled and filamentous forms D. heterotrophic nutrition E. can use a wide variety of nutrients Talaro – 005 Chapter… #28 29. Blooms of certain dinoflagellates are associated with all of the following except A. paralytic shellfish poisoning. B. red tides. C. ciguatera. D. Pfiesteria piscicida. E. euglenids. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #29 30. Which is mismatched? A. Pyrrophyta – euglenids B. Chrysophyta – diatoms C. Phaeophyta – brown algae D. Rhodophyta – red seaweed E. Chlorophyta – green algae Talaro – 005 Chapter… #30 31. All of the following are found in some or all protozoa except A. motility. B. ectoplasm and endoplasm. C. heterotrophic nutrition. D. formation of a cyst stage. E. cell wall. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #31 32. The motile, feeding stage of protozoa is called the A. trophozoite. B. cyst. C. sporozoite. D. oocyst. E. food vacuole. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #32 33. The group of protozoa that have flagella are the A.Sarcodina. B. Ciliophora. C. Mastigophora. D. Apicomplexa. E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #33 34. Which is mismatched? A.Giardia – transmitted by feces in drinking water B. Histoplasma – causes Ohio Valley fever C. Trichomonas – sexually transmitted D. Plasmodium – causes Chagas disease E. Saccharomyces – yeast in making bread and beer Talaro – 005 Chapter… #34 35. All of the following are helminths except A. pinworms. B. flukes. C. trypanosomes. D. roundworms. E. tapeworms. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #35 36. Which of the following does not pertain to helminths? A. in kingdom Protista B. parasitic worms C. eggs and sperm for reproduction D. often alternate hosts in complex life cycles E. have various organ systems Talaro – 005 Chapter… #36 37. Larvae and eggs are developmental forms of A.protozoa. B. algae. C. helminths. D. fungi. E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #37 38. All of the following groups of algae contain cellulose in their cell walls except A. Chlorophyta. B. Rhodophyta. C. Euglenophyta. D. Phaeophyta. E. All of the choices contain cellulose. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #38 39. The stacks of thylakoids in a chloroplast are called A. grana. B. stroma. C. mesosomes. D. cristae. E. packages. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #39 40. In order to reproduce sexually, diploid cells must produce gametes through _. A.diploid, mitosis B. diploid, meiosis C. haploid, mitosis D. haploid, meiosis E. triploid, mitosis Talaro – 005 Chapter… #40 41. 41.The smooth endoplasmic reticulum functions in synthesis of _ . A.glycogen B. proteins C. glucose D. nucleic acids E. lipids Talaro – 005 Chapter… #41 42. You are looking at cells undergoing mitosis and see the chromosomes have lined up in the middle of the cell. What stage is this? A. interphase B. anaphase C. telophase D. metaphase E. prophase Talaro – 005 Chapter… #42 43. On what basis are fungi classified as Fungi Imperfecti, or Deuteromycota? A.Based on their ability to cause diseases in animals. B. Based on whether they have a cap containing gills. C. Based on if the fungus lacks a sexual state. D. Based on if they have a special fungal sac. E. Based on if they can grow in acidic soil. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #43 44. Which of the following is the cause of malaria? A.Toxoplasma gondii B. Plasmodium C. Giardia D. Leishmania E. Trypanosoma Talaro – 005 Chapter… #44 45. Sources for human infection with worms are all of the following except A. infected animals. B. contaminated food. C. contaminated water. D. contaminated soil. E. contaminated air. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #45 46. All of the following are correct about helminthes except A. they generally make only a few eggs per day. B. they are not all parasites, although some are. C. as parasites, their reproductive organs are their most developed organs. D. their eggs and larvae are vulnerable to heat. E. tapeworms and pinworms are two examples. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #46 47. The organelle involved in intracellular digestion of food particles is the A.Golgi apparatus. B. lysosomes. C. cisternae. D. transitional vesicles. E. smooth endoplasmic reticulum. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #47 48. Chromosomes are not visible in the nucleus unless the cell is undergoing nuclear division. TRUE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #48 49. Eucaryotic mitochondria have their own 70S ribosomes and circular DNA. TRUE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #49 50. The eucaryotic cell membrane is a bilayer of sterols. FALSE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #50 51. Infections caused by fungi are called mycoses. TRUE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #51 52. The only Division of fungi that contains human pathogens is the Deuteromycota. FALSE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #52 53. All fungi have hyphae. FALSE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #53 54. All algae have chloroplasts. TRUE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #54 55. Algae are classified into Divisions based principally on their type of motility. FALSE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #55 56. Plankton are floating communities of helminths. FALSE Talaro – 005 Chapter… #56 57. Biologists have found evidence that eucaryotic cells evolved from procaryotic organisms by a process of intracellular _ _. Symbiosis Talaro – 005 Chapter… #57 58. There are nine peripheral pairs and one central pair of _ found inside eucaryotic flagella and cilia. Microtubules Talaro – 005 Chapter… #58 59. The passageways in the nuclear envelope for movement of substances to and from the nucleus and cytoplasm are called nuclear . Pores Talaro – 005 Chapter… #59 60. The presence of a double, matched set of chromosomes is referred to as the state. Diploid Talaro – 005 Chapter… #60 61. A originates from the golgi apparatus as one type of vesicle that contains a variety of enzymes for intracellular digestion. Lysosome Talaro – 005 Chapter… #61 62. Chloroplasts are composed of membranous sacs called that carry chlorophyll. Surrounding these sacs is a ground substance called . Thylakoids, Grana Talaro – 005 Chapter… #62 63. In eucaryotic cells, ribosomes have two locations: scattered in the , and on the surface of _. Cytoplasm, Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum Talaro – 005 Chapter… #63 64. The long, thread-like branching cells of molds are called _ . Hyphae Talaro – 005 Chapter… #64 65. During unfavorable growth conditions, many protozoa can convert to a resistant, dormant stage called a _. Cyst Talaro – 005 Chapter… #65 66. Discuss in detail, at least four reasons why fungi belong in their own kingdom instead of the kingdoms Plantae or Protista. Answers may vary. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #66 67. Compare and contrast the yeasts and molds with regard to: a) microscopic cellular morphology, b) macroscopic colony morphology, and c) reproduction. Answers may vary. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #67 68. Compare and contrast protozoan cysts, fungal spores, and bacterial endospores with regard to: a) the factors that stimulate their formation, b) their structure, and c) their function. Answers may vary. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #68 69. Discuss the role of specific algal and fungal toxins in human disease. Answers may vary. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #69 70. Compare and contrast the morphology of Cestodes, Trematodes, and Nematodes. Answers may vary. Talaro – 005 Chapter… #70 5 Summary 17 Student: _ 1. Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum? A. mycology B. hematology C. serology D. histology E. virology 2. The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is A. cross-reactions. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. specificity. E. sensitivity. 3. The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is A. cross-reactions. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. specificity. E. sensitivity. 4. Whole antigens are detected in this type of test: A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity 5. Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test: A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity 6. Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in this type of test: A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity 7. A serum titer involves A. serially diluting a serum sample. B. determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction. C. determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction. D. the Western blot method. E. None of the choices are correct. 8. Precipitation tests involve all the following except A. they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection. B. they include the VDRL test for syphilis. C. they are often performed in agar gels. D. they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution. E. a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react 9. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test? A. first antigen and antibody are allowed to react B. purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube C. sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture D. hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result E. None of the choices are correct. 10. When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and then antibodies specific for the serum proteins are placed in a parallel trough in order to form reaction arcs for each protein, the test is called A. Ouchterlony double diffusion. B. Western blot. C. immunelectrophoresis. D. radioimmunoassay (RIA). E. the Quellung test. 11. This test uses radioactive isotopes to label antibodies or antigens in order to detect minute amounts of corresponding antigen or antibody: A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test 12. This test is the confirming test for people who initially tested antibody-positive in the screening ELISA test: A. Ouchterlony double diffusion B. Western blot C. immunelectrophoresis D. radioimmunoassay (RIA) E. the Quellung test 13. Serotyping of the pneumococcus based on capsular polysaccharide is performed in A. Ouchterlony double diffusion. B. Western blot. C. immunelectrophoresis. D. radioimmunoassay (RIA). E. the Quellung test. 14. Viral hemagglutination testing A. uses a red blood cell that naturally reacts with viral antigens. B. analyzes patient serum for specific antibodies to a virus. C. has hemagglutination if the patient serum lacks virus specific antibodies. D. is used to diagnosis viral diseases such as rubella and monocucleosis. E. All of the choices are correct. 15. Which of the following is not an agglutination test? A. counterimmunoelectrophoresis B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test C. Weil-Felix reaction D. viral hemagglutination E. Widal test 16. The dyes fluorescein and rhodamine A. can be used to label antibodies in immunofluorescence tests. B. emit visible light in response to ultraviolet radiation. C. are observed in the fluorescent microscope. D. are used to identify pathogens of chlamydiosis, Legionnaires’ disease, and others. E. All of the choices are correct. 17. Which technique used to diagnose a disease is also called the double diffusion method? A. Ouchterlony B. VDRL test C. immunoelectrophoresis D. Western blot E. ELISA 18. Which type of test is the antistreptolysin O (ASO) titer test used to verify scarlet fever and rheumatic fever? A. Quellung test B. Ouchterlony C. Complement fixation D. Precipitation test E. Agglutination test 19. All of the following are methods to diagnose viral infections except A. detection of viral nucleic acid using specific probes. B. Western blot. C. cells taken from patient are examined for evidence of viral infection. D. signs and symptoms. E. the light microscope. 20. Which of the following methods is categorized as a direct test in order to analyze a specimen? A. catalase test B. gram stain C. phage typing D. antimicrobic sensitivity E. production of gas 21. All of the following are routine biochemical tests to aid in identifying a species except A. motility. B. carbohydrate fermentation. C. catalase test. D. oxidase test. E. coagulase test. 22. Which of the following tests is too nonspecific to be applicable as a precise identification tool? A. DNA analysis using genetic probes B. rRNA analysis C. G + C base composition percentage D. nucleic acid sequencing E. polymerase chain reaction 23. Which of the following can be used to determine the immunological status of a patient? A. urine B. cerebrospinal fluid C. whole tissues D. saliva E. All of the choices are correct. 24. Mary had an accidental needlestick one night during her shift as an emergency medical technician. Initially, she tested positive for HIV by the ELISA test. Which test would be done next to confirm an HIV infection? A. immunoelectrophoresis B. Ouchterlony C. complement fixation D. Western blot E. radioimmunoassay 25. The more a sample can be diluted and yet still react with antigen, the _ the concentration of antibodies in that sample and the is its titer. A. lower, lower B. higher, lower C. lower, higher D. higher, higher 26. Test systems involving which of the following has greatly improved the specificity of immunological tests? A. monoclonal antibodies B. electronics C. enzymes D. radioactivity E. All of the choices are correct. 27. Sputum is obtained by A. swabbing the mouth to sample saliva. B. a clean catch urine sample. C. the patient coughing up mucus from the lower respiratory system. D. a spinal tap above the chest. E. a throat swab. 28. A rising antibody titer a few days apart indicates A. a past case of the disease. B. a current infection. C. nothing, people always have antibodies in their serum. D. All of the choices are possible. 29. In direct antigen testing, the reaction is generally seen with the A. electron microscope. B. naked eye. C. light microscope. D. API 20E miniature identification system. E. PCR reaction. 30. Which technique is able to amplify DNA present in samples even in tiny amounts? A. genetic probing B. Ouchterlony C. polymerase chain reaction D. Nucleic acid sequencing E. G + C composition 31. Which test is used to measure the IgE present in allergic patients? A. fluorescent antibody tests B. Rapid Plasma Reagin (RPR) test C. Weil-Felix reaction D. RIST E. ELISA 32. The indirect ELISA test detects _ in a patient’s blood. A. antigen B. antibody C. microorganisms D. IgE only E. complement 33. All of the following are correct about the indirect ELISA except A. it can detect antibodies in a serum sample. B. it is the common screening test for antibodies to Helicobacter. C. color development indicates that antibody was not present in the patient’s serum. D. it is the common screening test for antibodies to hepatitis A. E. a known antigen is adsorbed to the surface of a well. 34. The Widal test is used for diagnosing salmonellosis. True False 35. When antibodies or other substances in serum cross-react with the test reagents, a false positive result can occur. True False 36. Serological testing always involves reactions between specific antibody and antigen. True False 37. ELISA tests use a fluorescent dye as a label to trace antigen-antibody reactions. True False 38. Serological tests should have low sensitivity and specificity. True False 39. The tuberculin test is an example of an in vivo serological test. True False 40. When antigen-antibody reactions are used to read a , they determine the quantity of antibodies in the serum. 41. A simple method to detect cells involves mixing them with untreated sheep red blood cells that will bind and form rosettes. 42. In indirect fluorescent testing, fluorescent _ are used to react with the Fc region of a specific, unknown serum antibody. 43. Horseradish peroxidase and alkaline phosphatase are enzymes used in _ tests. 44. In tests, antibody cross-links whole-cell antigens, forming complexes that settle out and form visible clumps in the test chamber. 45. Small quantities of DNA can be amplified using the method. 46. In _, antigens or antibodies are labeled with radioactive isotopes and traced. 47. Describe the indirect ELISA test that is used as a screening test for HIV (AIDS) and include the following: a) sequence of procedures, b) reagents used, and c) detection and interpretation of a positive test. 48. Compare and contrast agglutination and precipitation reactions, and include a description of one test for each type of reaction. 49. Describe 3 possible sampling sites and methods of collection for clinical laboratories. 50. Why do many physicians feel that stool cultures are not necessary, except in certain circumstances, when diagnosing GI tract infections? 17 Key 1. Which of the following is involved in the in vitro diagnostic testing of serum? A.mycology B. hematology C. serology D. histology E. virology Talaro – 017 Chapter… #1 2. The property of a test to detect even small amounts of antibodies or antigens that are test targets is A. cross-reactions. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. specificity. E. sensitivity. Talaro – 017 Chapter… #2 3. The property of a test to detect only a certain antibody or antigen, and not to react with any others, is A. cross-reactions. B. agglutination. C. precipitation. D. specificity. E. sensitivity. Talaro – 017 Chapter… #3 4. Whole antigens are detected in this type of test: A.cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity Talaro – 017 Chapter… #4 5. Soluble antigens are detected in this type of test: A.cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity Talaro – 017 Chapter… #5 6. Affixing antigen to an inert particle such as a latex bead is sometimes used in this type of test: A. cross-reactions B. agglutination C. precipitation D. specificity E. sensitivity Talaro – 017 Chapter… #6 7. A serum titer involves A. serially diluting a serum sample. B. determining the lowest dilution of serum that produces a visible reaction. C. determining the highest dilution of antigen that produces a visible reaction. D. the Western blot method. E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 017 Chapter… #7 8. Precipitation tests involve all the following except A. they rely on formation of visible clumps for detection. B. they include the VDRL test for syphilis. C. they are often performed in agar gels. D. they can be done in a test tube by carefully adding antiserum over antigen solution. E. a cloudy or opaque zone developing where antigen and antibody react Talaro – 017 Chapter… #8 9. Which of the following is incorrect regarding the complement fixation test? A.first antigen and antibody are allowed to react B. purified complement proteins are added to the antigen-antibody tube C. sheep red blood cells are added to the antigen-antibody-complement mixture D. hemolysis of the sheep red blood cells occurs in a positive test result E. None of the choices are correct. Talaro – 017 Chapter… #9 10. When serum proteins are separated by electrophoresis and