ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor
Exit Retake Exam Questions And
Well Graded Solutions With
Rationales Updated 2026-2027
Pass your ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Retake Exam with this ultimate study guide. Features
highly detailed multiple-choice practice questions covering core nursing topics including
Pharmacology Safety, Medical-Surgical, Prioritization, Delegation, and Maternal-Newborn care.
Every question includes italicized correct answers and comprehensive rationales to maximize your
clinical judgment. Perfect for targeted remediation, NGN format prep, and boosting your
predictability score.
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving a continuous
intravenous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the
nurse monitor to titrate the medication dosage?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D) Platelet count
Rationale: The nurse monitors the aPTT to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of
continuous intravenous heparin and safely adjust the dosage. PT and INR are used
to monitor oral warfarin therapy. While platelet counts are monitored to detect
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), they are not used to titrate the infusion
rate.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal
delivery. The nurse notes that the client's fundus is boggy and displaced to the right
of the midline. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer oxytocin intramuscularly
B) Massage the client's uterine fundus
C) Assist the client to empty her bladder
D) Obtain a set of maternal vital signs
Rationale: A postpartum fundus that is boggy and displaced to the right indicates a
distended bladder. A full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting efficiently,
increasing hemorrhage risks. Assisting the client to void allows the uterus to return to
,midline and contract. Massaging the fundus and giving oxytocin are useful, but
emptying the bladder addresses the root cause.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with an acute exacerbation of
ulcerative colitis. Which of the following dietary prescriptions should the nurse expect
the provider to order?
A) High-fiber diet with increased whole grains
B) Low-residue, high-protein diet
C) Liberal intake of caffeinated beverages
D) Strict low-calorie liquids only
Rationale: Clients experiencing an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis require a
low-residue diet to minimize bowel stimulation, reduce fecal volume, and decrease
GI inflammation. High protein is necessary to promote healing and replace protein
lost through chronic diarrhea. High-fiber foods and caffeine irritate the mucosa and
worsen symptoms.
4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who has a
traumatic brain injury. The nurse notes the client exhibits decerebrate posturing.
Which of the following descriptions matches this assessment finding?
A) Rigid extension of both the upper and lower extremities
B) Adduction and flexion of the arms into the chest
C) Flaccid paralysis of all four muscle extremities
D) Intermittent tremors and severe muscle flaccidity
Rationale: Decerebrate posturing is characterized by rigid extension of both upper
and lower extremities, pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion. This sign indicates
severe brainstem damage. Decorticate posturing involves adduction and flexion of
the arms inward toward the chest, which points to damage in the cerebral
hemispheres.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client who has heart
failure. Which of the following actions must the nurse perform prior to administering
the medication?
A) Measure the client's blood pressure in both arms
B) Assess the client's apical pulse for 1 full minute
C) Check the client's blood glucose level
D) Monitor the client's daily fluid intake and output
Rationale: The nurse must assess the apical pulse for 1 full minute before
administering digoxin because it slows the heart rate. If the apical pulse is less than
60 beats per minute in an adult, the dose must be withheld and the provider notified.
,Blood pressure, glucose, and fluid tracking are good interventions but are not safety
parameters for digoxin.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is on suicide precautions. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Assign the client to a private room at the end of the hallway
B) Inspect the client's belongings once a week for dangerous items
C) Ensure the client is within direct, one-on-one visual observation at all times
D) Allow the client to keep their personal cell phone and charging cord
Rationale: Suicide precautions require continuous, direct, one-on-one visual
observation by staff to ensure immediate intervention if the client attempts self-harm.
Rooms should be located close to the nurse's station, not at the end of the hall.
Belongings must be searched immediately upon admission and continuously
monitored. Ropes, cords, and personal electronics are safety hazards.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal
drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Document this as an expected finding.
B) Decrease the suction wall pressure.
C) Check the system for an air leak.
D) Clamp the chest tube close to the client's chest.
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak
within the drainage system or at the insertion site. The nurse must systematically
check all connections to locate and seal the leak. Intermittent bubbling is expected
during expiration, coughing, or sneezing, but continuous bubbling is abnormal.
Clamping a chest tube without a provider's prescription is dangerous and can lead to
a tension pneumothorax.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an abdominal
hysterectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to
prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Place pillows under the client's knees.
B) Encourage frequent early ambulation.
C) Massage the calves of the client's legs daily.
D) Restrict the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
Rationale: Early and frequent ambulation is the most effective nursing intervention to
stimulate venous return and prevent venous stasis, which causes DVT. Placing
, pillows under the knees can cause popliteal compression and increase venous
stasis. Massaging the calves is strictly contraindicated because it can dislodge an
undetected thrombus, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Restricting fluids increases
blood viscosity, raising the risk of clot formation.
Question 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include
regarding foot care?
A) Soak the feet daily in warm water for 20 minutes.
B) Apply moisturizing lotion liberally between the toes.
C) Inspect the soles of both feet daily using a mirror.
D) Trim toenails close to the skin in a rounded shape.
Rationale: Clients who have diabetes mellitus must inspect their feet daily to detect
minor cuts, blisters, or redness early, which prevents diabetic ulcers due to
peripheral neuropathy. A mirror helps visualize the soles of the feet easily. Soaking
the feet causes skin maceration and increases infection risks. Applying lotion
between the toes creates a moist environment that encourages fungal growth.
Toenails should be cut straight across to prevent ingrown nails.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute gout attack. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?
A) Serum creatinine
B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C) Uric acid
D) Amylase
Rationale: Gout is a systemic metabolic disease caused by the disruption of purine
metabolism, which leads to hyperuricemia. Uric acid crystals deposit in joints and
tissues, triggering acute inflammatory arthritis. Serum creatinine and BUN assess
kidney function, while amylase evaluates pancreatic function; none of these are
direct diagnostic markers for an acute gout flare-up.
Pharmacology
Question 11
A nurse is preparing to administer a regular insulin injection to a client. The nurse
notes the vial of regular insulin is cloudy. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take?
Exit Retake Exam Questions And
Well Graded Solutions With
Rationales Updated 2026-2027
Pass your ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exit Retake Exam with this ultimate study guide. Features
highly detailed multiple-choice practice questions covering core nursing topics including
Pharmacology Safety, Medical-Surgical, Prioritization, Delegation, and Maternal-Newborn care.
Every question includes italicized correct answers and comprehensive rationales to maximize your
clinical judgment. Perfect for targeted remediation, NGN format prep, and boosting your
predictability score.
1. A nurse is reviewing the laboratory results of a client who is receiving a continuous
intravenous heparin infusion. Which of the following laboratory values should the
nurse monitor to titrate the medication dosage?
A) Prothrombin time (PT)
B) International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C) Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT)
D) Platelet count
Rationale: The nurse monitors the aPTT to evaluate the therapeutic effectiveness of
continuous intravenous heparin and safely adjust the dosage. PT and INR are used
to monitor oral warfarin therapy. While platelet counts are monitored to detect
heparin-induced thrombocytopenia (HIT), they are not used to titrate the infusion
rate.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is 2 hours postpartum following a vaginal
delivery. The nurse notes that the client's fundus is boggy and displaced to the right
of the midline. Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer oxytocin intramuscularly
B) Massage the client's uterine fundus
C) Assist the client to empty her bladder
D) Obtain a set of maternal vital signs
Rationale: A postpartum fundus that is boggy and displaced to the right indicates a
distended bladder. A full bladder prevents the uterus from contracting efficiently,
increasing hemorrhage risks. Assisting the client to void allows the uterus to return to
,midline and contract. Massaging the fundus and giving oxytocin are useful, but
emptying the bladder addresses the root cause.
3. A nurse is caring for a client who is admitted with an acute exacerbation of
ulcerative colitis. Which of the following dietary prescriptions should the nurse expect
the provider to order?
A) High-fiber diet with increased whole grains
B) Low-residue, high-protein diet
C) Liberal intake of caffeinated beverages
D) Strict low-calorie liquids only
Rationale: Clients experiencing an acute exacerbation of ulcerative colitis require a
low-residue diet to minimize bowel stimulation, reduce fecal volume, and decrease
GI inflammation. High protein is necessary to promote healing and replace protein
lost through chronic diarrhea. High-fiber foods and caffeine irritate the mucosa and
worsen symptoms.
4. A nurse in an emergency department is assessing a client who has a
traumatic brain injury. The nurse notes the client exhibits decerebrate posturing.
Which of the following descriptions matches this assessment finding?
A) Rigid extension of both the upper and lower extremities
B) Adduction and flexion of the arms into the chest
C) Flaccid paralysis of all four muscle extremities
D) Intermittent tremors and severe muscle flaccidity
Rationale: Decerebrate posturing is characterized by rigid extension of both upper
and lower extremities, pronation of the arms, and plantar flexion. This sign indicates
severe brainstem damage. Decorticate posturing involves adduction and flexion of
the arms inward toward the chest, which points to damage in the cerebral
hemispheres.
5. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to an adult client who has heart
failure. Which of the following actions must the nurse perform prior to administering
the medication?
A) Measure the client's blood pressure in both arms
B) Assess the client's apical pulse for 1 full minute
C) Check the client's blood glucose level
D) Monitor the client's daily fluid intake and output
Rationale: The nurse must assess the apical pulse for 1 full minute before
administering digoxin because it slows the heart rate. If the apical pulse is less than
60 beats per minute in an adult, the dose must be withheld and the provider notified.
,Blood pressure, glucose, and fluid tracking are good interventions but are not safety
parameters for digoxin.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is on suicide precautions. Which of the
following interventions should the nurse include in the plan of care?
A) Assign the client to a private room at the end of the hallway
B) Inspect the client's belongings once a week for dangerous items
C) Ensure the client is within direct, one-on-one visual observation at all times
D) Allow the client to keep their personal cell phone and charging cord
Rationale: Suicide precautions require continuous, direct, one-on-one visual
observation by staff to ensure immediate intervention if the client attempts self-harm.
Rooms should be located close to the nurse's station, not at the end of the hall.
Belongings must be searched immediately upon admission and continuously
monitored. Ropes, cords, and personal electronics are safety hazards.
Question 7
A nurse is assessing a client who has a chest tube connected to a water-seal
drainage system. The nurse notes continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take?
A) Document this as an expected finding.
B) Decrease the suction wall pressure.
C) Check the system for an air leak.
D) Clamp the chest tube close to the client's chest.
Rationale: Continuous bubbling in the water-seal chamber indicates an air leak
within the drainage system or at the insertion site. The nurse must systematically
check all connections to locate and seal the leak. Intermittent bubbling is expected
during expiration, coughing, or sneezing, but continuous bubbling is abnormal.
Clamping a chest tube without a provider's prescription is dangerous and can lead to
a tension pneumothorax.
Question 8
A nurse is caring for a client who is 24 hours postoperative following an abdominal
hysterectomy. Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement to
prevent deep vein thrombosis (DVT)?
A) Place pillows under the client's knees.
B) Encourage frequent early ambulation.
C) Massage the calves of the client's legs daily.
D) Restrict the client's fluid intake to 1,500 mL per day.
Rationale: Early and frequent ambulation is the most effective nursing intervention to
stimulate venous return and prevent venous stasis, which causes DVT. Placing
, pillows under the knees can cause popliteal compression and increase venous
stasis. Massaging the calves is strictly contraindicated because it can dislodge an
undetected thrombus, leading to a pulmonary embolism. Restricting fluids increases
blood viscosity, raising the risk of clot formation.
Question 9
A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1
diabetes mellitus. Which of the following instructions should the nurse include
regarding foot care?
A) Soak the feet daily in warm water for 20 minutes.
B) Apply moisturizing lotion liberally between the toes.
C) Inspect the soles of both feet daily using a mirror.
D) Trim toenails close to the skin in a rounded shape.
Rationale: Clients who have diabetes mellitus must inspect their feet daily to detect
minor cuts, blisters, or redness early, which prevents diabetic ulcers due to
peripheral neuropathy. A mirror helps visualize the soles of the feet easily. Soaking
the feet causes skin maceration and increases infection risks. Applying lotion
between the toes creates a moist environment that encourages fungal growth.
Toenails should be cut straight across to prevent ingrown nails.
Question 10
A nurse is caring for a client who is experiencing an acute gout attack. Which of the
following laboratory values should the nurse expect to be elevated?
A) Serum creatinine
B) Blood urea nitrogen (BUN)
C) Uric acid
D) Amylase
Rationale: Gout is a systemic metabolic disease caused by the disruption of purine
metabolism, which leads to hyperuricemia. Uric acid crystals deposit in joints and
tissues, triggering acute inflammatory arthritis. Serum creatinine and BUN assess
kidney function, while amylase evaluates pancreatic function; none of these are
direct diagnostic markers for an acute gout flare-up.
Pharmacology
Question 11
A nurse is preparing to administer a regular insulin injection to a client. The nurse
notes the vial of regular insulin is cloudy. Which of the following actions should the
nurse take?
