NUR 2063 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 2 | Questions and Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct.

NUR 2063 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 2 | Questions and Answers | 2026 Update | 100% Correct. The student nurse has a question from a client regarding syphilis. The client asks, "how does syphilis present in the tertiary stage of the disease?" How should the student nurse respond? A. Syphilis does not present with any signs or symptoms during the tertiary stage B. Syphilis can lead to systemic vascular damage in the tertiary stage of the disease C. Syphilis produces a painless chancre on the genitalia in the tertiary stage D. Syphilis lesions appear as painful, fluid-filled vesicles at the site of infection in the tertiary stage B. Syphilis can lead to systemic vascular damage in the tertiary stage of the disease Which of the following electrolyte disorders is associated with SIADH? A. Hyperkalemia B. Hypernatremia C. Hypokalemia D. Hyponatremia D. Hyponatremia Which of the following may occur if gastroenteritis is left untreated? A. Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration B. Dehydration and cold extremitiesC. Electrolyte imbalances and polyuria D. Dehydration and diabetes A. Electrolyte imbalances and dehydration Which of the following explains why women are at increased risk for UTI? A. Women have longer urethras B. Women have less perineal irritation from underwear and sexual activity C. Women are more likely to fully empty their bladder when urinating D. In women, the opening of the urethra is in close proximity to the anus D. In women, the opening of the urethra is in close proximity to the anus What condition leads to an excessive amount of growth hormone being released by the pituitary gland in adulthood after epiphyseal plates of the long bones have fused? A. Acromegaly B. Gigantism C. SIADH D. Dwarfism A. Acromegaly Which of the following is a problem related to benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)? A. Inability to pass urine effectivelyB. Colon cancer C. Upper respiratory infection D. Infertility A. Inability to pass urine effectively Which of the following is a serious potential complication of GERD? A. Cough B. Esophageal cancer C. Heartburn D. Diarrhea B. Esophageal cancer Which symptoms would a client with chronic gastritis likely exhibit? A. Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions B. Hyperchlorhydria and ulcers C. Frequent diarrhea D. Enhanced energy A. Atrophy of the gastric mucosa with decreased secretions Which type of incontinence is caused by an increase in intraabdominal pressure due to activities such as coughing or sneezing? A. Neurogenic bladder B. StressC. Urge D. Overflow B. Stress Which of the following explains why individuals may experience diarrhea when taking antibiotics? A. Decreased gastric secretions B. Destruction of the normal gut flora C. Reduced intestinal motility D. Activation of the parasympathetic nervous system B. Destruction of the normal gut flora What are the clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism? SATA A. Cold intolerance B. Diarrhea C. Tachycardia D. Constipation E. Weight gain F. Bradycardia A. Cold intolerance D. Constipation E. Weight gain F. BradycardiaWhich of the following describes what occurs during the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? A. Increased blood pressure B. Increased urine output C. Increased uric acid production D. Increased fluid retention B. Increased urine output Which of the following is an example of a general cause of UTI? A. Polycystic kidney disease B. Horseshoe kidney C. Hypoplasia of the kidney D. E. Coli D. E. Coli Which of the following is the name of a medical emergency associated with hyperthyroidism, in which the client experiences fever, decreased level of consciousness, and abdominal pain? A. Myxedema coma B. Thyroid storm (thyrotoxicosis) C. Ketoacidosis D. Addisonian crisis B. Thyroid storm (thyrotoxicosis)Which of the following may result in a mechanical bowel obstruction? A. Opioid analgesic administration B. A diet low in fiber C. Intussusception D. Clostridium difficile infection C. Intussusception Which of the following may a client be at risk for if they have the human papillomavirus (HPV)? A. Lung cancer B. Pancreatic cancer C. Stomach cancer D. Cervical cancer D. Cervical cancer Administration of a nephrotoxic substance, such as contrast dye, can lead to which of the following acute kidney injuries? A. Intrinsic B. Prerenal C. Postrenal D. Polyuria A. Intrinsic Which of the following does helicobacter pylori (H. pylori) often cause?A. Colon cancer B. Hiatal hernia C. Peptic ulcer disease D. Esophageal varices C. Peptic ulcer disease Which of the following describes hematuria? A. Protein in the urine B. Blood in the urine C. Bacteria in the urine D. Urea in the blood B. Blood in the urine Which condition is the result of endometrial tissue growing outside of the uterus? A. Chlamydia B. Amenorrhea C. Endometriosis D. Gonorrhea C. Endometriosis What are two main conditions responsible for chronic kidney disease? A. Upper respiratory infections and asthmaB. Diabetes and breast cancer C. Hypertension and diabetes D. Myasthenia gravis and thrombocytopenia C. Hypertension and diabetes What is the difference between diabetes mellitus type I and type II? A. Type I is caused by overproduction of insulin; Type II is the lack of insulin production B. Type I is the result of insulin resistance; Type II is due to the lack of a pancreas C. Type I is due to the lack of insulin production; Type II is caused by insulin resistance D. Type I is caused by insulin resistance; Type II is due to the lack of insulin production C. Type I is due to the lack of insulin production; Type II is caused by insulin resistance Which condition is typically caused by a genetic mutation? A. Acute pyelonephritis B. Polycystic kidney disease C. Cystitis D. Benign prostatic hypertrophy B. Polycystic kidney disease What is one of the causes of pyelonephritis?A. Ascending urinary tract infection B. Trauma to the bladder from a car accident C. Congestive heart failure D. Genetics A. Ascending urinary tract infection Which electrolyte can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias for clients with chronic kidney disease? A. Phosphorous B. Sodium C. Potassium D. Calcium C. Potassium A client presents to the emergency department with lower right abdomen pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays rebound tenderness. What would the nurse anticipate the client is experiencing? A. Gastritis B. Peptic ulcer disease C. Appendicitis D. Esophageal cancer C. AppendicitisWhat does the term dysphagia mean? A. The client has a protrusion of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle B. Recurrent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus C. Absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach D. Difficulty swallowing D. Difficulty swallowing Which of the following conditions would be expected with a client with an elevated TSH level with a decreased T3/T4 level? A. Normal thyroid functioning B. Hyperthyroidism C. Increased serum calcium D. Hypothyroidism D. Hypothyroidism When a client has abnormal function of the parathyroid glands, this can result in imbalances of which of the following electorlytes? A. Sodium B. Water C. Calcium D. Potassium C. CalciumWhich of the following is a classic manifestation of glomerulonephritis? A. Increased urine output B. Proteinuria C. Hypotension D. Difficulty breathing B. Proteinuria Which of the following is a sign that a client is in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure? A. Decreased urine output B. Fluid volume deficit C. Decreased serum potassium and phosphorus D. Hypotension A. Decreased urine output The client, diagnosed with cystitis, asks the health care provider why she seems susceptible to recurrent infections. Which of the following is true about cystitis? A. Prevalence in men is increased due to sexual practices B. Less frequent in women due to a shorter urethra C. There are no symptoms in the client D. Most cases are due to E. coli D. Most cases are due to E. coliPyelonephritis is the infection of which of the following areas of the body? A. Bladder B. Ureter C. Kidney D. Urethra C. Kidney What causes a rigid abdomen in peritonitis? A. Increased gas causes abdominal distention B. Inflammation and abdominal muscle spasm C. Abdomen is always soft in peritonitis D. Fluid is pushing against the abdominal wall B. Inflammation and abdominal muscle spasm What is the order of the flow of filtrate through the kidneys? A. From the collecting duct to the distal convoluted tubule, to the renal pelvis B. From the Bowman's capsule in the proximal convoluted tubule, to the loop of Henle C. From the loop of Henle to the collecting duct, to the loop of Henle D. From the distal convoluted tubule to the loop of Henle, to the collecting duct B. From the Bowman's capsule in the proximal convoluted tubule, to the loop of HenleWhat are the main characteristics of Cushing syndrome? A. Excessive cortisol production, fluid retention, and moon-face appearance B. Insufficient cortisol, bronzing of the skin, and hypotension C. Excessive urination and dehydration D. Exophthalmos and weight loss A. Excessive cortisol production, fluid retention, and moon-face appearance The client has gallstones obstructing the bile duct. What symptom would the nurse expect to see in this client? A. Intrahepatic jaundice B. Gastritis C. Severe right upper quadrant pain D. Right lower quadrant pain C. Severe right upper quadrant pain Which disorder is related to breaking down fats for energy in clients with Type I diabetes? A. Nonketotic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (NHHS) B. Hyperglycemic lipid syndrome C. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) D. Lipidosis hyperosmolar ketosisC. Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) The client can expect which of the following concerns when infected with herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 1 or type 2 A. No pain during an outbreak B. A recurrence of symptoms periodically C. Immunity after the first exposure D. A vaginal birth during an outbreak B. A recurrence of symptoms periodically What is the main cause of chronic pancreatitis occurrences? A. Gallstones B. Alcoholism C. Trauma D. Hypercalcemia B. Alcoholism What is the main purpose of dialysis for the client with kidney disease? A. Filter out bacteria causing infection B. Removes excess fluid and wastes C. Adds chemicals to help the kidneys D. Prepares the client for kidney transplant B. Removes excess fluid and wastesWhich of the following organism is most often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease? A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae B. Pseudomonas C. Treponema pallidum D. Escherichia coli A. Neisseria gonorrhoeae Which of the following injury is associated with a prerenal kidney injury? A. An episode of increased blood flow to the kidneys B. Fluid flushes to keep the client hydrated C. An episode of decreased blood flow to the kidneys D. Medications to treat an asthma exacerbation C. An episode of decreased blood flow to the kidneys Which of the following 'polys' occurs with type I diabetes? A. Polyuria, polymorphia, polypharmacy B. Polyphagia, polydactyly, polyuria C. Polydipsia, polydactyly, polyphagia D. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia D. Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia What is most likely to cause a hiatal hernia?A. An abnormally long esophagus B. Increased intraabdominal pressure C. Stenosis of the hiatus in the diaphragm D. A small fundus in the stomach B. Increased intraabdominal pressure Which of the following causes obstructions in the renal system? A. Renal calculi and using a urinal B. Presence of a tumor and enlarged prostate C. Lack of dietary calcium and using a treadmill D. Regular ambulation at home and wearing eyeglasses B. Presence of a tumor and enlarged prostate Which of the following are inflammatory bowel disorders? A. Intussusception and ulcerative colitis B. Intussusception and volvulus C. Crohn's disease and volvulus D. Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease D. Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease Which of the following injury is associated with a postrenal kidney injury? A. Contrast dyeB. Hypotension C. An obstruction in the ureter D. Nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) C. An obstruction in the ureter What causes diabetes insipidus? A. Insufficient insulin production B. Insufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production C. Overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D. Overproduction of insulin B. Insufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production Which of the following is a condition of the newborn eyes caused by the transmission of Chlamydia during birth? A. Neonatal conjunctivitis B. Neonatal anemia C. Neonatal jaundice D. Erythema neonatorum A. Neonatal conjunctivitisNUR 2063 Essentials of Pathophysiology Exam 2 Question 1 Which diagnosis is consistent with epigastric pain, beginning 30 minutes to 2 hours after eating when the stomach is empty or in the middle of the night? A) Chronic gastric B) Acute gastric C) Gastric Ulcer D) Duodenal ulcer Question 2 A client with a history of stress ulcers presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain. Which of the following clinical manifestations of a stress ulcer should be reported to the provider immediately? (A) Fatigue (B) Indigestion C)Hematemesis: D weight loss Question 3 Which of the following Is a true statement regarding ulcerative colitis? A) Ulcerative colitis extends throughout the entire gastrointestinal tract B) Ulcerative colitis generally appears in childhood C)Ulcerative colitis causes severe constipation (D) Ulcerative colitis lesions are limited to the intestinal mucosa Question 4 Which of the following is a serious potential complication of gastroesophageal reflux disorder (GERD)? A) Diarrhea (B) Cough (C Heartburn (D Esophageal cancer Question 5 A client presents to the emergency department with lower right abdomen pain, fever, nausea, and occasional diarrhea. After palpating the abdomen, the client displays rebound tenderness. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate the client is experiencing? A)Peptic ulcer disease (B)Esophageal cancer C)Gastritis D) Appendicitis Question 6 Which of the following describes the condition of acute gastritis? A) inflammation of the descending colon B) inflammation of outwardly bulging pouches of the intestinal wall C) inflammation of the stomach's mucosal lining D)inflammation of the gallbladderQuestion 7 Which of the following is a sign that a client is in the oliguric phase of acute renal failure (ARF)? (A) Hypotension (B) Decreased serum potassium and phosphorus C)Decreased urine output D) Fluid volume deficit Question 9 What is characteristic of the oliguric phase of acute tubular necrosis? A) Magnesium and phosphorous loss in the urine B) Sodium retention and potassium loss In the urine C) Fluid excess and electrolyte Imbalance D) Fever and diminishing cognition Question 10 Adhenthas nephrolithlasis- which of the following symptoms would require immediate notification of the healthcare provider? (A) Flank pain B)Pink-tinged urine C) Nausea D) Fever Question 11 What causes diabetes insipidus? A) Insufficient insulin production B) Insufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production C)Overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) D)Overproduction of insulin Question 12 What condition leads to an excessive amount of growth hormone (GH) being released by the pituitary gland in adulthood after epiphyseal plates of the long bones have fused? (A) Acromegaly B) Dwarfism C) Gigantism D) syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) Question 13 Which of the following is a cause of Hyperparathyroidism? A) Lung infection B)Pancreatic tumor C) Hypertension D) Thyroid tumor Question 14A patient ent with type 1 diabetes is experiencing severe stress. What can be the result of this exaggerated stress response? A) it can cause higher blood sugar readings through the release of insulin B) it can cause higher blood sugar readings through the release of glucocorticoids C) It can cause lower blood sugar readings through the release of glucocorticoids D It can cause lower blood sugar readings through the release of insulin Question 15 Which of the following is true regarding acromegaly? A) It occurs due to excessive levels of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) B) It is a relatively common condition C) It occurs more frequently in men D) It is the result of a growth hormone-secreting pituitary adenoma Question 16 When damage occurs to the antidiuretic hormone (ADH)-producing cells in the hypothalamus from head trauma. Intracranial tumors, or neurosurgery, which of the following disorders can occur? A) Diabetes insipidus B) Diabetes mellitus C) Kidney damage D)Adrenogenital syndrome Question 17 Which statement is true regarding the parathyroid glands? (A) Parathyroid glands produce thyroid hormone B) At least 6-10 pairs of parathyroid glands exist C Parathyroid glands are large and take up the majority of the thyroid gland D) Parathyroid glands play an important role in calcium regulation Question 18 Which of the following statements is correct concerning Individuals infected with herpes simplex virus (HSY) type 1 or type 2. A) Individuals with H5V will develop immunity after the first exposure B) Individuals with H5V can experience a recurrence of symptoms periodically C)individuals with H5V cannot transmit the virus during an active outbreak D) Individuals with HSV will experience no pain during an outbreak Question 19 Which of the following describes the absence or suppression of menstruation in which a woman experiences three or more missed menses? A) Polymenorrhagia B) Amenorrhea Question 20 A client presents to the clinic with complaints of a thick, white vaginal discharge and intense vaginal itching. She stated that she recentlycompleted a course of antibiotics for a urinary tract infection. The nurse suspects the client has developed which of the following conditions? A) Endometriosis B) Gonorrhea (C Pelvic inflammatory disease D)candidiasis Question 21 Which of the following is one of the most frequent causes of chronic kidney disease? A) Hypertension B) Chronic pyelonephritis (C Polycystic kidney disease D) Glomerulonephritis Question 22 What is one causes of pyelonephritis? A) Genetics B) according urine tract infection or bacterial infection. D) trauma to the bladder from a car accident Question 23 What is the main purpose of dialysis for the client with kidney disease? A) Prepares the client for kidney transplant B) Adds chemicals to help the kidney function C) Removes excess fluid and wastes D) Filter out bacteria causing infection Question 24 Which electrolytes can cause fatal cardiac dysrhythmias for clients with chronic disease? Potassium Question 25 Which of the following increases the risk of hepatocellular carcinoma? (Select all that apply). A Hepatitis C B Hepatitis B C) Strep throat D) Acne vulgaris E) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) Question 26 Which of the following can be causes of amenorrhea (Select all that apply). A) Pregnancy B) Genetic disorders C) Eating disorders D) chemotherapyE) A healthy diet Question 27 Strong risk factors for colon cancer include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) A) Aging B) Gender C) Heredity D) Crohn’s disease E) High-fat diet Question 28 which of the following is Incorrect regarding incontinence? (A) Functional incontinence is often the result of environmental limitations B) Urge incontinence is a normal part of aging C) Stress incontinence is caused by increased intra-abdominal pressure D) Stress incontinence is affected by muscle laxity Question 29 A nurse is reviewing the history and physical examination of a client who reports having frequent episodes of hematuria with the absence of pain. The nurse suspects the individual may have which of the following conditions? A) Bladder cancer B) Benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH) C) Urinary tract infection D) Kidney stones Question 30 Which of the following is a common clinical manifestation of cystitis? A) Diarrhea B ) Dysuria C) Costovertebral tenderness D) Flank pain Question 31 A client has difficulty walking without assistance and is incontinent of urine when she is unable to get to the restroom quickly enough. What is the term for this type of incontinence? A) Urge incontinence (B Functional incontinence C)Stress incontinence D) Mixed incontinence Question 32 Which of the following is a predisposing factor to bladder cancer?A) Exposure to chemicals and cigarette smoke B )Hormonal abnormalities C) Prostate cancer D) Presence of embryonic tissue Question 33 Which of the following statements is true regarding chronic bacterial prostatitis? (A) It is the most common form of prostatitis B) It is usually seen in younger men (C) It is usually a result of recurrent urinary tract infections (D it has no clear etiology Question 34 The increased risk for men over age 50 to develop a urinary tract infection (UTI) is related to which of the following? A) Enlarged prostate B) More frequent sexual activity C) incontinence (D) Immobility Question 35 Mechanisms for defense against urinary pathogens in men include all of the following except which? A) Antimicrobial secretions from the prostate gland B) Long length of the urethra C) Acidic pH of urine (D) Alkaline pH of urine Question 37 What causes a rigid abdomen in peritonitis? A) Fluid is pushing against the abdominal wall B) Increased gas causes abdominal distention C) Inflammation and abdominal muscle spasm D) Impaction of stool in the large intestine Question 38 What is most likely to cause a hiatal hernia? A) small fundus in the stomach B) Increased Intre-abdominal pressure C) An abnormally long esophagus Question 39 Which of the following leads to electrolyte imbalance in the client with syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion? A) Increased blood glucose B) Excessive sweating C) Fluid retention D) Excessive urinationQuestion 40 A client presents to the clinic with rapid breathing, flushed skin, and ketones present In the urine. Which disorder would the nurse suspect the individual is suffering from? A) Diabetic ketoacidosts (DKA) B) Kidney stones C) Urinary tract infection (UTI) D) cholecystitis 41)The nurse determines which arterial blood gas values are consistent with ketoacidosis in the client with diabetes? A) pH 7.28, HC03- 22 mEq/L, PCO2 58 mm Hg (B)pH 7.48, HC03- 28 mEq/L, PC02 38 mm Hg (C) pH 7.28, HC03- 18 mEq/L, PCO2 28 mm Hg D) pH 7.38, HC03- 22 mEq/L, PC02 38 mm Hg Question 42 What are the main characteristics of Cushing syndrome? A) Exophthalmos and weight loss B) Excessive urination and dehydration C) Insufficient cortisol, bronzing of the skin, and hypotension D) Excessive cortisol production, fluid retention, and moon-face appearance Question 43 A client with type 1 diabetes mellitus is pale, has tremors, and is diaphoretic. What does the nurse suspect the client is experiencing? A)Nonketotic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (NHHS) B) Hypoglycemia C) Hyperglycemia D) Diabetic keto Acidosis’ Question 44 Which of the following is the name of a medical emergency associated with hyperthyroidism, in which the client experiences fever,decreased level of consciousness, and abdominal pain? (A) Myxedema coma (B) Addisonian crisis (C Thyroid storm (thyrotoxicosis) (D Ketoacidosis Question 45 The client with hyperparathyroidism would most likely present with which of the following physical findings? A) Weak, brittle bones B) Cold extremities and weak pulses C )Enlarged bones of the face and extremities D) Blurred vision and bulging eyesQuestion 46 When taking the blood pressure of a client after a parathyroidectomy to treat hyperparathyroidism, the nurse notes that the client's hand has gone into flexion contractions, also known as Trousseau's sign. What does the nurse determine to be the cause of this symptom? A) Hypercalcemia B) Hypocalcemia C )Hypokalemia (D Hyperkalemia Question 47 Which serum electrolyte imbalance would the nurse expect to find in the client with Addison's disease? A) Serum potassium of 6 mEg/L B) Serum sodium of 140 mEg/L (C) serum sodium of 135 mEq/L D) Serum potassium of 4 mEq/L Question 48 Which of the folloving organism is most often associated with pelvic inflammatory disease? A) Neisseria gonorrhoeae (B Treponema pallidum C) Escherichia coll (D) Pseudomonas Question 49 Which of the following disorders is caused by the implantation and growth of endometrial tissue outside of the uterine cavity? A) Endometriosis (B) Cystocele C) chlamydia trachomatis D) cervical Cancer Question 50 Which information is correct regarding chlamydia and gonorrhea? A) Transmission of gonorrhea during birth may result in cleft palate B) Symptoms of infection with chlamydia are more severe than those caused by Neisseria gonorrhea C) Both gonorrhea and chlamydia affect columnar epithelium cells of the genitourinary system D) Gonorrhea is more commonly seen in men whereas chlamydia is more commonly seen in womenQuestion 6 Which of the following is a condition of the newborn eyes caused by the transmission of Chlamydia during birth? • Erythema neonatorum • Neonatal jaundice • Neonatal conjunctivitis • Neonatal anemia Question 7 Cessation of menstruation occurs as a result of which of the following? • Decreased estrogen secretion • Decreased progesterone secretion • Increased estrogen secretion • Increased progesterone secretion Question 8 A client has nephrolithiasis. Which of the following symptoms would require immediate notification of the healthcare provider? • Pink-tinged urine • Nausea • Flank pain • Fever Question 9 Which of the following describes what occurs during the diuretic phase of acute kidney injury? • Increased fluid retention • Increased uric acid production • Increased blood pressure • Increased urine output Question 10 What are the significant signs of nephritic syndrome? • Proteinuria and lipidemia • Pyuria and leukopenia • Gross hematuria and urinary casts • Hypertension and heart failure Question 11 Appropriate management of end-stage renal disease includes which of the following? • A high-phosphate diet • Erythropoietin administration • A high-protein diet • Potassium supplementationQuestion 12 The nurse is reviewing information regarding gonorrhea. Which of the following statements about gonorrhea is true? • Clients with gonorrhea will require close follow-up because treatment failure to complete all treatment is common • Clients with gonorrhea are restricted from engaging in sexual activity even after their blood tests and genital swabs are negative • Clients with gonorrhea are contagious even if they have no outward symptoms • Clients with gonorrhea are only infectious if the lesions are draining Question 13 Which clinical diagnosis is associated with hirsutism, amenorrhea, and infertility? • Primary amenorrhea • Pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) • Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) • Premenstrual syndrome (PMS) Question 14 A 30-year-old female with newly diagnosed polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is being counselled by her healthcare provider. The nurse understands that this condition often results in which of the following? • Ovarian cancer • Infertility • Pelvic inflammatory disease • Hyperthyroidism Question 15 In addition to pain, signs or symptoms of ureteral stones may frequently include which of the following? • Hypotension • Urinary urgency • Proteinuria • Hematuria Question 16 Which of the following is incorrect regarding incontinence? • Stress incontinence is affected by muscle laxity • Urge incontinence is a normal part of aging• Stress incontinence is caused by increased intra-abdominal pressure • Functional incontinence is often the result of environmental limitations Question 17 Which of the following is a problem related to benign prostatic hypertrophy (BPH)? • Infertility • Inability to pass urine effectively • Upper respiratory infection • Colon cancer Question 18 Incontinence manifested with exertion, such as by lifting heavy objects, or by coughing or sneezing is known as which of the following? • Stress incontinence • Overflow incontinence • Mixed incontinence • Urge incontinence Question 19 Heartburn is a clinical manifestation of which of the following disorders? • Ulcerative colitis • Diverticulitis • Crohn's disease • Peptic ulcer disease (PUD) Question 20 Which of the following are inflammatory bowel disorders? • Intussusception and volvulus • Intussusception and ulcerative colitis • Crohn's disease and volvulus • Ulcerative colitis and Crohn's disease Question 21 What is the main cause of chronic pancreatitis? • Alcoholism • Trauma • Hypercalcemia • GallstonesQuestion 22 Which of the following polys occurs with type 1 diabetes? • Polyphagia, polydactyly, polyuria • Polyuria, polymorphia, polypharmacy • Polyuria, polydipsia, polyphagia • Polydipsia, polydactyly, polyphagia Question 23 Which of the following does not occur in Addison's disease? • Deficiency of adrenal cortex hormones • Hypotension • Skin hyperpigmentation • Exophthalmos Question 24 The client complains of palpitations with a high heart rate, restlessness, weight loss, amenorrhea, and an intolerance to heat. She also presents with eyes that appear to be buiging. The nurse suspects that the provider may test for which of the following conditions? • Hypoparathyroidism • Hyperthyroidism • Hypothyroidism • Hyperparathyroidism Question 25 A client presents to the clinic with rapid breathing, flushed skin, and ketones present in the urine. Which disorder would the nurse suspect the individual is suffering from? • Urinary tract infection (UTI) • Cholecystitis • Kidney stones • Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) Question 26 Which disorder is related to breaking down fats for energy in clients with type 1 diabetes? • Nonketotic hyperglycemic hyperosmolar syndrome (NHHS) • Diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) • Lipidosis hyperosmolar ketosis • Hyperglycemic lipid syndromeQuestion 27 Which serum electrolyte imbalance would the nurse expect to find in the client with Addison's disease? • Serum sodium of 135 mEq/L • Serum potassium of 6 mEq/L • Serum sodium of 140 mEq/L • Serum potassium of 4 mEq/L Question 28 Which of the following conditions would be expected with a dient with an elevated thyroidstimulating hormone (TSH) level with a decreased Triiodothyronine (T3/Thyroxine (T4) level? • Hypothyroidism • Normal thyroid functioning • Hyperthyroidism • Increased serum calcium Question 29 The client with hyperparathyroidism would most likely present with which of the following physical findings? • Enlarged bones of the face and extremities • Cold extremities and weak pulses • Weak, brittle bones. • Blurred vision and bulging eyes Question 30 A client is experiencing polyuria, polyphagia, polydipsia, weight loss, and fatigue. What conditions does the nurse suspect? • Diabetes insipidus • Hypoglycemia • Hyperthyroidism • Diabetes mellitus Question 31 Manifestation of calculi in the ureters include which of the following? (Select all that apply.) • Dysuria • Cloudy, foul-smelling urine • Flank pain • Hematuria • EnuresisQuestion 32 Which of the following is true regarding genital herpes and herpes simplex virus (HSV) type 2? (Select all that apply). • Individuals with HSV type 2 will experience recurrence of the lesions • BHSV type 2 is easily treated with antibiotics D • HSV type 2 can be spread when lesions are not apparent • HSV type 2 is transmissible through direct skin-to-skin contact • HSV type 2 is transmissible from mother to child G Question 33 A female client was recently diagnosed with endometriosis. The clinical manifestations of endometriosis include which of the following? (Select all that apply). • Pelvic pain • Pain during or after intercourse • Infertility • Dysmenorrhea • Urinary tract infections Question 34 Which of the following explains why women are at increased risk for urinary tract infection (UTI)? • Women have less perineal irritation from underwear and sexual activity • Women have longer urethras • Women are more likely to fully empty their bladder when urinating • In women, the opening of the urethra is close to the anus Question 35 Which of the following is an example of a general cause of urinary tract infection (UTI)? • Horseshoe kidney • Polycystic kidney disease • Escherichia coli (E. coli) • Hypoplasia of the kidney Question 36 The increased risk for men over age 50 to develop a urinary tract infection (UTI) is related to which of the following? • Incontinence • More frequent sexual activity • Immobility• Enlarged prostate Question 37 Which of the following statements is true regarding chronic bacterial prostatitis? • It is the most common form of prostatitis • It is usually seen in younger men • It has no clear etiology • It is usually a result of recurrent urinary tract infections Question 38 The nurse conducts a physical assessment for a client with anorexia and severe abdominal pain. The nurse notes that the abdomen is rigid and the client's temperature is 101.1°F (38.4°C). Which condition does the nurse suspect based on this information? • Cirrhosis • Acute cholecystitis • Perforated gastric ulcer with peritonitis • Exacerbation of ulcerative colitis Question 39 The client has gallstones obstructing the bile duct. What symptoms would the nurse expect to see in this client? • Intrahepatic jaundice • Gastritis • Right lower quadrant pain • Severe right upper quadrant pain Question 40 What pain is typical of diverticulitis? • Upper right quadrant abdominal pain, Radiating into the groin • Lower left quadrant pain • Lower right quadrant pain • D Sharp, colicky, periumbilical pain Question 41What does the term dysphagia mean? • Absence of a connection of the esophagus to the stomach • Recurrent reflux of stomach acid into the esophagus • Difficulty swallowing • Protrusion of the gastric mucosa through a segment of weakened muscle Question 42 Which of the following is a true statement regarding ulcerative colitis? • Ulcerative colitis generally appears in childhood • Ulcerative colitis lesions are limited to the intestinal mucosa • Ulcerative colitis extends throughout the entire gastrointestinal tract • Ulcerative colitis causes severe constipation Question 43 A client with a history of stress ulcers presents to the emergency room with abdominal pain. Which of the following clinical manifestations of a stress ulcer should be reported to the provider immediately? Hematemesis Indigestion Weight loss Fatigue Question 44 What is the primary cause of type 1 diabetes? • Chronic obesity • Destruction of pancreatic beta cells by an autoimmune reaction • Increased glucose production in the liver • Increased resistance of body cells to insulin action Question 45 • Which of the following is a cause of Hyperparathyroidism? • Thyroid tumor • Lung infection • Pancreatic tumor • Hypertension Question 46 What are the most common mechanisms controlling hormone release and regulation? • Negative feedback loop• Positive feedback loop • Extracellular fluids • Extrinsic factors Question 47 What condition leads to an excessive amount of growth hormone (GH) being released by the pituitary gland in adulthood after epiphyseal plates of the long bones have fused? • Acromegaly • Dwarfism • Gigantism • Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH) Question 48 What causes diabetes insipidus? • Insufficient antidiuretic hormone (ADH) production • Overproduction of insulin • Insufficient insulin production • Overproduction of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) Question 49 The pituitary gland produces which of the following hormones that acts as a potent anabolic agent for the development of all tissues of the body? • Luteinizing hormone (LH) • Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) • Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) • Growth hormone (GH) Question 50 Which statement is true regarding the parathyroid glands? • Parathyroid glands produce thyroid hormone (TH) • Parathyroid glands play an important role in calcium regulation • At least 6-10 pairs of parathyroid glands exist • Parathyroid glands are large and take up the majority of the thyroid gland