USPA D License Actual Exam 2026/2027
United States Parachute Association –
Advanced Proficiency Assessment.
Section 1: Core Knowledge & Safety Basics (Questions 1–10)
Q1: You are under a fully inflated main canopy at 3,000 feet AGL and observe another canopy
directly above you on a collision course. According to USPA SIM right-of-way rules, who has
the right of way?
A. The lower canopy, because they are already established in the airspace and have less
maneuverability.
B. The higher canopy, because they can see the lower canopy more easily and should steer
away. [CORRECT]
C. Both canopies have equal right of way; both should turn 90 degrees in opposite directions.
D. The lower canopy, because they have priority to land first.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-1 states that the higher canopy has the right of way because the
lower canopy cannot see above them and has limited ability to maneuver upward. The higher
canopy must take evasive action. Common error: Many jumpers incorrectly assume the lower
canopy has priority because they are "established," which violates the fundamental principle
that the canopy with superior visibility and maneuverability bears responsibility for avoidance.
Q2: What is the minimum pull altitude for a D-license holder making a wingsuit jump in
accordance with USPA SIM recommendations?
A. 2,500 feet AGL
B. 3,000 feet AGL
C. 3,500 feet AGL [CORRECT]
D. 4,500 feet AGL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-5 recommends a minimum pull altitude of 3,500 feet AGL for
wingsuit jumps due to slower fall rates, longer deployment sequences, and reduced
,maneuverability during deployment. Common error: Jumpers often apply standard freefall pull
altitudes (2,500–3,000 feet) to wingsuit jumps, failing to account for the extended time required
for a stable deployment from a wingsuit configuration.
Q3: According to the USPA SIM, what is the primary landing priority that takes precedence
over all others?
A. Landing into the wind
B. Landing in a clear, open area
C. Avoiding obstacles and other canopies
D. Flaring for a soft landing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-1 establishes the landing priorities in this order: (1) land clear of
obstacles and other canopies, (2) land into the wind, (3) flare for a soft landing. Avoiding
collision and obstacles is the highest priority because a downwind landing into an open field is
survivable, while a collision or obstacle strike may not be. Common error: Jumpers prioritize
landing into the wind over obstacle avoidance, sometimes turning toward the wind and flying
into trees, power lines, or other jumpers.
Q4: During a 4-way formation skydive, you are the base and a floater docks from above.
According to USPA SIM Section 5-2, which jumper has the responsibility to avoid a collision
during the approach?
A. The base, because they are the reference point for the formation
B. The floater, because they are approaching from above and have the superior vantage point
[CORRECT]
C. Both jumpers share equal responsibility regardless of position
D. The camera flyer, because they must monitor all approaches
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-2 states that the approaching jumper (typically the floater from
above) has the responsibility to avoid collision because they have better visibility of the target
and surrounding airspace. The base maintains position while others dock around them.
Common error: Bases sometimes maneuver unexpectedly to "help" approaching jumpers,
which destabilizes the formation and increases collision risk.
, Q5: A D-license applicant must demonstrate proficiency in at least one advanced skill area.
Which of the following does NOT qualify as an advanced skill option for D-license eligibility?
A. Night jump
B. Water jump
C. HALO jump (military-style high-altitude, low-opening) [CORRECT]
D. Accuracy landing within 7 feet of target
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 3-1 lists acceptable advanced skills for D-license eligibility,
including night jumps, water jumps, accuracy landings, and demonstration jumps. HALO jumps
are military operations not recognized as a USPA civilian proficiency requirement. Common
error: Some jumpers confuse military-style operations with USPA-sanctioned advanced skills;
the SIM specifically defines qualifying skills for civilian progression.
Q6: You are conducting a pre-jump equipment check on a student rig. You notice the reserve
ripcord handle is not fully seated in its pocket. What is the correct immediate action?
A. Proceed with the jump; the handle will seat itself during freefall
B. Have the jumper pull the reserve handle to test function
C. Ground the rig and have a rigger inspect and reseat the handle properly [CORRECT]
D. Push the handle firmly into place and continue with the jump
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-1 and FAA regulations require that any equipment discrepancy
affecting safety must be inspected by a qualified rigger. A loose reserve handle could indicate
improper packing or a mechanical issue that requires professional evaluation. Common error:
Jumpers sometimes attempt to "fix" equipment issues themselves without rigger oversight,
potentially masking a serious packing error or component failure.
Q7: According to FAA Part 105 and USPA recommendations, what is the minimum cloud
clearance requirement for a jump conducted at 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace?
A. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontally
B. 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 mile horizontally
C. Clear of clouds
D. 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontally [CORRECT]
United States Parachute Association –
Advanced Proficiency Assessment.
Section 1: Core Knowledge & Safety Basics (Questions 1–10)
Q1: You are under a fully inflated main canopy at 3,000 feet AGL and observe another canopy
directly above you on a collision course. According to USPA SIM right-of-way rules, who has
the right of way?
A. The lower canopy, because they are already established in the airspace and have less
maneuverability.
B. The higher canopy, because they can see the lower canopy more easily and should steer
away. [CORRECT]
C. Both canopies have equal right of way; both should turn 90 degrees in opposite directions.
D. The lower canopy, because they have priority to land first.
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-1 states that the higher canopy has the right of way because the
lower canopy cannot see above them and has limited ability to maneuver upward. The higher
canopy must take evasive action. Common error: Many jumpers incorrectly assume the lower
canopy has priority because they are "established," which violates the fundamental principle
that the canopy with superior visibility and maneuverability bears responsibility for avoidance.
Q2: What is the minimum pull altitude for a D-license holder making a wingsuit jump in
accordance with USPA SIM recommendations?
A. 2,500 feet AGL
B. 3,000 feet AGL
C. 3,500 feet AGL [CORRECT]
D. 4,500 feet AGL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-5 recommends a minimum pull altitude of 3,500 feet AGL for
wingsuit jumps due to slower fall rates, longer deployment sequences, and reduced
,maneuverability during deployment. Common error: Jumpers often apply standard freefall pull
altitudes (2,500–3,000 feet) to wingsuit jumps, failing to account for the extended time required
for a stable deployment from a wingsuit configuration.
Q3: According to the USPA SIM, what is the primary landing priority that takes precedence
over all others?
A. Landing into the wind
B. Landing in a clear, open area
C. Avoiding obstacles and other canopies
D. Flaring for a soft landing
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-1 establishes the landing priorities in this order: (1) land clear of
obstacles and other canopies, (2) land into the wind, (3) flare for a soft landing. Avoiding
collision and obstacles is the highest priority because a downwind landing into an open field is
survivable, while a collision or obstacle strike may not be. Common error: Jumpers prioritize
landing into the wind over obstacle avoidance, sometimes turning toward the wind and flying
into trees, power lines, or other jumpers.
Q4: During a 4-way formation skydive, you are the base and a floater docks from above.
According to USPA SIM Section 5-2, which jumper has the responsibility to avoid a collision
during the approach?
A. The base, because they are the reference point for the formation
B. The floater, because they are approaching from above and have the superior vantage point
[CORRECT]
C. Both jumpers share equal responsibility regardless of position
D. The camera flyer, because they must monitor all approaches
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-2 states that the approaching jumper (typically the floater from
above) has the responsibility to avoid collision because they have better visibility of the target
and surrounding airspace. The base maintains position while others dock around them.
Common error: Bases sometimes maneuver unexpectedly to "help" approaching jumpers,
which destabilizes the formation and increases collision risk.
, Q5: A D-license applicant must demonstrate proficiency in at least one advanced skill area.
Which of the following does NOT qualify as an advanced skill option for D-license eligibility?
A. Night jump
B. Water jump
C. HALO jump (military-style high-altitude, low-opening) [CORRECT]
D. Accuracy landing within 7 feet of target
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 3-1 lists acceptable advanced skills for D-license eligibility,
including night jumps, water jumps, accuracy landings, and demonstration jumps. HALO jumps
are military operations not recognized as a USPA civilian proficiency requirement. Common
error: Some jumpers confuse military-style operations with USPA-sanctioned advanced skills;
the SIM specifically defines qualifying skills for civilian progression.
Q6: You are conducting a pre-jump equipment check on a student rig. You notice the reserve
ripcord handle is not fully seated in its pocket. What is the correct immediate action?
A. Proceed with the jump; the handle will seat itself during freefall
B. Have the jumper pull the reserve handle to test function
C. Ground the rig and have a rigger inspect and reseat the handle properly [CORRECT]
D. Push the handle firmly into place and continue with the jump
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: USPA SIM Section 5-1 and FAA regulations require that any equipment discrepancy
affecting safety must be inspected by a qualified rigger. A loose reserve handle could indicate
improper packing or a mechanical issue that requires professional evaluation. Common error:
Jumpers sometimes attempt to "fix" equipment issues themselves without rigger oversight,
potentially masking a serious packing error or component failure.
Q7: According to FAA Part 105 and USPA recommendations, what is the minimum cloud
clearance requirement for a jump conducted at 10,000 feet MSL in Class E airspace?
A. 500 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 2,000 feet horizontally
B. 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 mile horizontally
C. Clear of clouds
D. 1,000 feet below, 1,000 feet above, 1 statute mile horizontally [CORRECT]
