D115 Master Set-Advanced
Pathophysiology Exam For The
Advanced Practice Nurse With
Complete Solutions
A patient expresses concern to an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about
not being able to complete an entire meal without experiencing acid reflux. The patient
also reports new symptoms including chest pain and dysphagia. The APRN suspects
that the patient might have cancer.
Which type of cancer is the APRN concerned about? - CORRECT ANSWER- The
most common symptom of esophageal cancer is a problem swallowing (dysphagia),
with a feeling like the food is stuck in the throat or chest or even choking on food. Some
people get a feeling of pressure or burning in the chest.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is working with a patient who has been
diagnosed with detrusor hyperreflexia of the bladder without dyssynergia. The APRN is
aware that an underlying neurological disorder led to the patient's condition.
Which neurological disorder caused this condition? - CORRECT ANSWER-
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is examining a 55-year-old African
American male patient who has skin nodules. The APRN performs a physical exam and
notes the nodules on his palms are blue-black and irregular.
Which diagnosis should the APRN suspect? - CORRECT ANSWER-
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is examining an adult patient for knee
pain that increases when climbing stairs or running. The pain decreases with rest,
application of local heat, and regular use of ibuprofen. The APRN notes tenderness and
inflammation surrounding the knee, but there is no obvious knee deformity. Radiologic
evaluation is unremarkable. - CORRECT ANSWER- Trauma and overuse injuries
can result in inflammation of the bursal sac. The pathophysiology of bursitis is an
inflammation that is reactive to overuse or excessive pressure. The inflammation may
decrease with rest, heat, and aspiration of the fluid.
,A patient is seen by an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) for chronic venous
insufficiency. The patient has a leg wound that is red, warm, swollen, draining, and
painful.
Which treatment should the APRN provide for this patient? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Cellulitis is an infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue that causes redness,
warmth, edema, and pain. Initial treatment is with systemic antibiotics. Bacterial cellulitis
is a common complication of chronic venous disease (CVD) when dermatitis or open
ulcers are present. The treatment is antibiotics.
Following a motor vehicle accident, a child presents to an emergency department with a
suspected greenstick fracture of the tibia. An advanced practice registered nurse
(APRN) orders X-rays.
Which problem will the APRN expect to observe on the X-ray of this patient's tibia? -
CORRECT ANSWER- A splintering of the inner bone surface with a break on one
cortex of the bone- A greenstick fracture is a partial thickness fracture where only the
cortex and periosteum are interrupted on one side of the bone but remain uninterrupted
on the other, usually happening in long bones.
A patient presents with pain and swelling in the left knee. The pain was initially
intermittent but has progressed and is now continuous and worse at night. Laboratory
testing shows a significant elevation in serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels. The
computed tomography (CT) scan shows that the compact bone is replaced with dense
callus of masses of osteoid.
Which form of cancer should an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) suspect?
- CORRECT ANSWER- This describes osteosarcoma. Pain in the affected bone
(usually around the knee or in the upper arm) is the most common symptom of
osteosarcoma. At first, the pain might not be constant and might be worse at night. The
pain often increases with activity and might result in a limp if the tumor is in a leg bone.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
CORRECT ANSWER- Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y,
if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
CORRECT ANSWER- Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing
(PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a
form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of
genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second
trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo
prior to implantation.
,Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - CORRECT ANSWER- Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat")
is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low
birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - CORRECT ANSWER-
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - CORRECT
ANSWER- Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and
accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - CORRECT ANSWER- The
imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER- The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - CORRECT
ANSWER- Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - CORRECT ANSWER- Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - CORRECT ANSWER- Helper T
cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - CORRECT ANSWER- Immunogenicity is primarily based
on the ability to recognize something foreign.
, How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - CORRECT ANSWER- The complement pathway is activated
in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - CORRECT
ANSWER- An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts,
which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - CORRECT ANSWER- Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after
sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - CORRECT ANSWER- Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer? - CORRECT ANSWER- The results of decreased fat consumption
have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon
cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - CORRECT ANSWER- Asbestos exposure results in an
increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - CORRECT
ANSWER- UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when
the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - CORRECT
ANSWER- Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - CORRECT ANSWER- TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
Pathophysiology Exam For The
Advanced Practice Nurse With
Complete Solutions
A patient expresses concern to an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) about
not being able to complete an entire meal without experiencing acid reflux. The patient
also reports new symptoms including chest pain and dysphagia. The APRN suspects
that the patient might have cancer.
Which type of cancer is the APRN concerned about? - CORRECT ANSWER- The
most common symptom of esophageal cancer is a problem swallowing (dysphagia),
with a feeling like the food is stuck in the throat or chest or even choking on food. Some
people get a feeling of pressure or burning in the chest.
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is working with a patient who has been
diagnosed with detrusor hyperreflexia of the bladder without dyssynergia. The APRN is
aware that an underlying neurological disorder led to the patient's condition.
Which neurological disorder caused this condition? - CORRECT ANSWER-
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is examining a 55-year-old African
American male patient who has skin nodules. The APRN performs a physical exam and
notes the nodules on his palms are blue-black and irregular.
Which diagnosis should the APRN suspect? - CORRECT ANSWER-
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is examining an adult patient for knee
pain that increases when climbing stairs or running. The pain decreases with rest,
application of local heat, and regular use of ibuprofen. The APRN notes tenderness and
inflammation surrounding the knee, but there is no obvious knee deformity. Radiologic
evaluation is unremarkable. - CORRECT ANSWER- Trauma and overuse injuries
can result in inflammation of the bursal sac. The pathophysiology of bursitis is an
inflammation that is reactive to overuse or excessive pressure. The inflammation may
decrease with rest, heat, and aspiration of the fluid.
,A patient is seen by an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) for chronic venous
insufficiency. The patient has a leg wound that is red, warm, swollen, draining, and
painful.
Which treatment should the APRN provide for this patient? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Cellulitis is an infection of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue that causes redness,
warmth, edema, and pain. Initial treatment is with systemic antibiotics. Bacterial cellulitis
is a common complication of chronic venous disease (CVD) when dermatitis or open
ulcers are present. The treatment is antibiotics.
Following a motor vehicle accident, a child presents to an emergency department with a
suspected greenstick fracture of the tibia. An advanced practice registered nurse
(APRN) orders X-rays.
Which problem will the APRN expect to observe on the X-ray of this patient's tibia? -
CORRECT ANSWER- A splintering of the inner bone surface with a break on one
cortex of the bone- A greenstick fracture is a partial thickness fracture where only the
cortex and periosteum are interrupted on one side of the bone but remain uninterrupted
on the other, usually happening in long bones.
A patient presents with pain and swelling in the left knee. The pain was initially
intermittent but has progressed and is now continuous and worse at night. Laboratory
testing shows a significant elevation in serum alkaline phosphatase (ALP) levels. The
computed tomography (CT) scan shows that the compact bone is replaced with dense
callus of masses of osteoid.
Which form of cancer should an advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) suspect?
- CORRECT ANSWER- This describes osteosarcoma. Pain in the affected bone
(usually around the knee or in the upper arm) is the most common symptom of
osteosarcoma. At first, the pain might not be constant and might be worse at night. The
pain often increases with activity and might result in a limp if the tumor is in a leg bone.
Which type of genetic disease affects males more frequently than females? -
CORRECT ANSWER- Sex-Linked recessive. Since males only have one X and one Y,
if the affected chromosome has the illness, it will be expressed.
In which two conditions are chromosomal abnormalities the leading known cause? -
CORRECT ANSWER- Intellectual disability and fetal miscarriage. Chromosome
abnormalities are the leading known cause of intellectual disability and fetal
miscarriage.
What are three examples of prenatal diagnostic studies? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Chorionic villus sampling (CVS), amniocentesis, and preimplantation genetic testing
(PGT) are examples of prenatal diagnostic studies and are performed in vitro. CVS is a
form of genetic testing that provides genetic information found in utero and is usually
performed between weeks 11 and 14 of pregnancy. An amniocentesis is a form of
genetic testing that evaluates amniotic fluid and is usually performed during the second
trimester, between weeks 15 and 20 of pregnancy. PGT is performed on the embryo
prior to implantation.
,Which genetic disorder is characterized by the presence of a zygote having one
chromosome with a normal complement of genes and one chromosome with a missing
gene? - CORRECT ANSWER- Cri du chat syndrome (translated as "cry of the cat")
is caused by a DNA deletion. This term describes the cry often heard from a baby
affected by the syndrome. Cri du chat syndrome can present as a microcephalic, low
birth-weight baby with a piercing cry.
How can an X-linked recessive disease skip generations? - CORRECT ANSWER-
The disease can be transmitted through female carriers.
Since females have two copies of the X chromosome, the mother may provide an
unaffected X to a daughter or son. Furthermore, a daughter may not show signs of the
disease because she has the other X (the only X the father can give to a female) to
cancel it out.
Which type of risk is referred to as the ratio of the disease rate among the entire
population to the disease rate in an unexposed population? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Relative risk is a ratio of probability, not an actual occurrence of disease.
What are the empirical risks for most multifactorial diseases based on? - CORRECT
ANSWER- Many factors from lifestyle to genetics affect multifactorial diseases.
Observation and evaluation of each case individually provides the most thorough and
accurate assessment.
What refers to the silenced gene of a gene pair. - CORRECT ANSWER- The
imprinted gene is the silent gene of a gene pair.
What is the primary reason that some older adults have impaired inflammation and
wound healing? - CORRECT ANSWER- The underlying chronic illness exists.
A generalized inflammatory response seen in chronic illness depletes the body's
reserves to fight against illness.
Which cells are the body's primary defense against parasite invasion? - CORRECT
ANSWER- Eosinophils are the body's primary defense against parasites.
What Phagocytes bacteria? - CORRECT ANSWER- Macrophages work by eating or
phagocytosing bacteria.
What is the first response to a foreign pathogen? - CORRECT ANSWER- Helper T
cells
Which characteristic is the most important determinant of immunogenicity when
considering the antigen? - CORRECT ANSWER- Immunogenicity is primarily based
on the ability to recognize something foreign.
, How are erythrocytes destroyed when mismatched blood is administered, causing an
ABO incompatibility? - CORRECT ANSWER- The complement pathway is activated
in response to blood incompatibility.
What is the hypersensitivity reaction that causes atopic dermatitis? - CORRECT
ANSWER- An immediate (type I) hypersensitivity reaction causes atopic dermatitis.
Which four infections are considered fungal infections? - CORRECT ANSWER-
Infection with a fungus is called mycosis and includes dermatophytes (e.g., tineas,
which refers to several skin mycoses, including ringworm and athlete's foot) and yeasts,
which include candida and aspergillus.
When is the earliest after sexual transmission of HIV that lab results can detect
infection? - CORRECT ANSWER- Lab testing can detect HIV RNA 4 to 10 days after
sexual transmission, whereas HIV antibody testing may take 23 to 90 days to result in a
positive test. Repeat testing may be needed to rule out a false negative test due to
testing too soon after exposure, especially if a high likelihood of exposure is suspected.
What is a characteristic of exotoxins? - CORRECT ANSWER- Exotoxins are
released during bacterial growth.
Which dietary lifestyle choice has been associated with a decreased risk for developing
colon cancer? - CORRECT ANSWER- The results of decreased fat consumption
have been widely studied and have demonstrated a decreased risk of developing colon
cancer.
Which cancer is an individual who has worked with asbestos for over 40 years most
likely to develop? - CORRECT ANSWER- Asbestos exposure results in an
increased risk of lung and lung lining cancer.
Which statement is true regarding ultraviolet (UV) light?
The degree of damage is not affected by the light's wavelength. - CORRECT
ANSWER- UV light causes basal cell carcinoma and squamous cell carcinoma when
the UVB rays hit DNA strands, causing thymine base pairs that are side by side to pair
together, becoming thymine dimers. These thymine dimers lead to cell death or cancer.
Which cancer does exercise have a convincing impact on reducing? - CORRECT
ANSWER- Exercise-induced myokines cause apoptosis of colon cancer cells.
Low healthcare literacy is recognized as a major risk factor in blood pressure control
and has been shown to have adverse effects on health outcomes.
true or false - CORRECT ANSWER- TRUE
By providing patient education at the appropriate literacy level, improved health
outcomes may result.
