LPN/LVN Week 10 Comprehensive Quiz 2026/2027 Update |SBON
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is prescribed
furosemide. Which lab value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum Potassium
B. Serum Sodium
C. Serum Calcium
D. Serum Magnesium
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium.
Hypokalemia is a common and serious side effect.
2. Which of the following findings is most indicative of Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Increased urinary output
D. Visual disturbances such as yellow halos
Answer: D
Rationale: Classic signs of Digoxin toxicity include visual changes (yellow/green halos),
nausea, vomiting, and bradycardia.
,3. The nurse is preparing to administer Lispro insulin to a client. When should
the nurse instruct the client to eat?
A. Within 15 minutes of administration
B. One hour after administration
C. Two hours before administration
D. At bedtime
Answer: A
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes; therefore, the
patient must eat immediately to prevent hypoglycemia.
4. A client is diagnosed with suspected meningitis. Which physical assessment
sign would indicate meningeal irritation?
A. Babinski sign
B. Phalen’s sign
C. Homan’s sign
D. Brudzinski’s sign
Answer: D
Rationale: Brudzinski’s sign (neck stiffness causing hip/knee flexion) and Kernig’s sign are
primary indicators of meningeal irritation.
5. What is the therapeutic range for a client receiving Warfarin (Coumadin) for
atrial fibrillation?
A. INR 0.5 - 1.0
B. PTT 60 - 80 seconds
C. INR 4.0 - 5.0
D. INR 2.0 - 3.0
Answer: D
Rationale: For most conditions like atrial fibrillation, the therapeutic International
Normalized Ratio (INR) target is between 2.0 and 3.0.
, 6. A nurse is assessing a client with a chest tube. What should the nurse observe
in the water seal chamber?
A. Continuous bubbling
B. No movement at all
C. Bright red drainage
D. Intermittent bubbling (tidaling) with respiration
Answer: D
Rationale: Tidaling (the rise and fall of water with breathing) is expected. Continuous
bubbling suggests an air leak.
7. Which of the following is the priority intervention for a client experiencing an
anaphylactic reaction?
A. Administering IV fluids
B. Applying a cold compress
C. Administering Epinephrine IM
D. Checking the client’s temperature
Answer: C
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse airway
constriction and low blood pressure.
8. A client with Type 1 Diabetes is found unconscious and clammy. What is the
nurse’s first action?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Check blood glucose level
C. Call the family
D. Administer Glucagon IM
Answer: D
Rationale: In an unconscious client with suspected hypoglycemia, providing a glucose-
elevating agent like Glucagon is the priority when they cannot swallow.
1. A nurse is caring for a client with a history of heart failure who is prescribed
furosemide. Which lab value should the nurse monitor most closely?
A. Serum Potassium
B. Serum Sodium
C. Serum Calcium
D. Serum Magnesium
Answer: A
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium.
Hypokalemia is a common and serious side effect.
2. Which of the following findings is most indicative of Digoxin toxicity?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Constipation
C. Increased urinary output
D. Visual disturbances such as yellow halos
Answer: D
Rationale: Classic signs of Digoxin toxicity include visual changes (yellow/green halos),
nausea, vomiting, and bradycardia.
,3. The nurse is preparing to administer Lispro insulin to a client. When should
the nurse instruct the client to eat?
A. Within 15 minutes of administration
B. One hour after administration
C. Two hours before administration
D. At bedtime
Answer: A
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes; therefore, the
patient must eat immediately to prevent hypoglycemia.
4. A client is diagnosed with suspected meningitis. Which physical assessment
sign would indicate meningeal irritation?
A. Babinski sign
B. Phalen’s sign
C. Homan’s sign
D. Brudzinski’s sign
Answer: D
Rationale: Brudzinski’s sign (neck stiffness causing hip/knee flexion) and Kernig’s sign are
primary indicators of meningeal irritation.
5. What is the therapeutic range for a client receiving Warfarin (Coumadin) for
atrial fibrillation?
A. INR 0.5 - 1.0
B. PTT 60 - 80 seconds
C. INR 4.0 - 5.0
D. INR 2.0 - 3.0
Answer: D
Rationale: For most conditions like atrial fibrillation, the therapeutic International
Normalized Ratio (INR) target is between 2.0 and 3.0.
, 6. A nurse is assessing a client with a chest tube. What should the nurse observe
in the water seal chamber?
A. Continuous bubbling
B. No movement at all
C. Bright red drainage
D. Intermittent bubbling (tidaling) with respiration
Answer: D
Rationale: Tidaling (the rise and fall of water with breathing) is expected. Continuous
bubbling suggests an air leak.
7. Which of the following is the priority intervention for a client experiencing an
anaphylactic reaction?
A. Administering IV fluids
B. Applying a cold compress
C. Administering Epinephrine IM
D. Checking the client’s temperature
Answer: C
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse airway
constriction and low blood pressure.
8. A client with Type 1 Diabetes is found unconscious and clammy. What is the
nurse’s first action?
A. Administer regular insulin
B. Check blood glucose level
C. Call the family
D. Administer Glucagon IM
Answer: D
Rationale: In an unconscious client with suspected hypoglycemia, providing a glucose-
elevating agent like Glucagon is the priority when they cannot swallow.
