LPN/LVN Comprehensive Final Exam Study Guide 2026/2027 UPDATE
|SBON
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
A. Visual disturbances such as yellow halos
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Increased appetite
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Common signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal upset (nausea,
vomiting), bradycardia, and visual disturbances like yellow-green halos or blurred vision.
2. An LPN is preparing to administer Lispro insulin to a client. When should the
nurse instruct the client to eat?
A. Immediately or within 15 minutes of injection
B. 2 hours after injection
C. 30 to 60 minutes after injection
D. 1 hour before injection
Answer: A
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes. To prevent
hypoglycemia, the client must eat immediately after administration.
,3. Which of the following tasks should an LPN delegate to an Unlicensed
Assistive Personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a client’s post-operative pain
B. Feeding a client who is at high risk for aspiration
C. Ambulating a stable client in the hallway
D. Performing an initial admission assessment
Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can perform routine tasks on stable clients, such as ambulation, bathing,
and feeding clients who do not have swallowing precautions.
4. A client is receiving warfarin for deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor?
A. aPTT
B. HgbA1c
C. INR
D. Serum calcium
Answer: C
Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the effectiveness
of warfarin therapy. aPTT is used for heparin.
5. Which of the following is the priority nursing action for a client experiencing
an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Applying a cold compress
B. Documenting the event
C. Administering epinephrine
D. Obtaining a detailed allergy history
Answer: C
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse airway
constriction and hypotension.
, 6. A nurse is caring for a client with C. difficile. Which infection control measure
is mandatory?
A. Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
B. Washing hands with soap and water
C. Wearing a surgical mask
D. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room
Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff spores are resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers; handwashing with soap
and water is required for physical removal of spores.
7. Which position is most appropriate for a client immediately following a liver
biopsy?
A. Right lateral
B. Left lateral
C. High-Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: A
Rationale: Lying on the right side applies pressure to the biopsy site (the liver), which
helps prevent hemorrhage.
8. A client is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor for which of the
following electrolyte imbalances?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium, leading to
hypokalemia.
|SBON
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a prescription for digoxin. Which of the
following findings should the nurse identify as an indication of digoxin toxicity?
A. Visual disturbances such as yellow halos
B. Hyperkalemia
C. Increased appetite
D. Tachycardia
Answer: A
Rationale: Common signs of digoxin toxicity include gastrointestinal upset (nausea,
vomiting), bradycardia, and visual disturbances like yellow-green halos or blurred vision.
2. An LPN is preparing to administer Lispro insulin to a client. When should the
nurse instruct the client to eat?
A. Immediately or within 15 minutes of injection
B. 2 hours after injection
C. 30 to 60 minutes after injection
D. 1 hour before injection
Answer: A
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes. To prevent
hypoglycemia, the client must eat immediately after administration.
,3. Which of the following tasks should an LPN delegate to an Unlicensed
Assistive Personnel (UAP)?
A. Assessing a client’s post-operative pain
B. Feeding a client who is at high risk for aspiration
C. Ambulating a stable client in the hallway
D. Performing an initial admission assessment
Answer: C
Rationale: UAPs can perform routine tasks on stable clients, such as ambulation, bathing,
and feeding clients who do not have swallowing precautions.
4. A client is receiving warfarin for deep vein thrombosis. Which laboratory
value should the nurse monitor?
A. aPTT
B. HgbA1c
C. INR
D. Serum calcium
Answer: C
Rationale: The International Normalized Ratio (INR) is used to monitor the effectiveness
of warfarin therapy. aPTT is used for heparin.
5. Which of the following is the priority nursing action for a client experiencing
an anaphylactic reaction?
A. Applying a cold compress
B. Documenting the event
C. Administering epinephrine
D. Obtaining a detailed allergy history
Answer: C
Rationale: Epinephrine is the first-line treatment for anaphylaxis to reverse airway
constriction and hypotension.
, 6. A nurse is caring for a client with C. difficile. Which infection control measure
is mandatory?
A. Using an alcohol-based hand sanitizer
B. Washing hands with soap and water
C. Wearing a surgical mask
D. Placing the client in a negative-pressure room
Answer: B
Rationale: C. diff spores are resistant to alcohol-based sanitizers; handwashing with soap
and water is required for physical removal of spores.
7. Which position is most appropriate for a client immediately following a liver
biopsy?
A. Right lateral
B. Left lateral
C. High-Fowler’s
D. Trendelenburg
Answer: A
Rationale: Lying on the right side applies pressure to the biopsy site (the liver), which
helps prevent hemorrhage.
8. A client is prescribed furosemide. The nurse should monitor for which of the
following electrolyte imbalances?
A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hypokalemia
C. Hypercalcemia
D. Hypernatremia
Answer: B
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that causes the excretion of potassium, leading to
hypokalemia.
