LPN/LVN Final Exam V2 - 2026 Comprehensive Review 2026/2027
UPDATE
1. Which client should the nurse assess first after receiving the change-of-shift
report?
A. A client with asthma who has a newly developed audible wheeze
B. A client with heart failure who reports a 2-pound weight gain in 24 hours
C. A client with diabetes whose fingerstick glucose is 150 mg/dL
D. A client scheduled for a colonoscopy in 2 hours
Answer: A
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework, the client
with asthma and new wheezing indicates a potential airway obstruction and requires
immediate assessment.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with MRSA in a wound. Which personal
protective equipment (PPE) is essential?
A. N95 respirator and goggles
B. Gloves only
C. Surgical mask and shoe covers
D. Gloves and a gown
Answer: D
Rationale: MRSA in a wound requires Contact Precautions, which include the use of gloves
and a gown when entering the room or having direct contact with the client.
,3. Which medication is commonly held if the client’s apical pulse is less than 60
beats per minute?
A. Furosemide
B. Amlodipine
C. Digoxin
D. Warfarin
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. It is standard practice to
hold the dose and notify the provider if the apical pulse is below 60 bpm in adults.
4. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor?
A. PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time)
B. INR (International Normalized Ratio)
C. Serum Potassium
D. White Blood Cell count
Answer: B
Rationale: INR is the standard lab used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin
therapy. PTT is used for heparin.
5. When performing tracheostomy care, which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Remove the old inner cannula
B. Clean around the stoma with saline
C. Suction the tracheostomy if secretions are present
D. Apply a new sterile tracheostomy dressing
Answer: C
Rationale: The airway must be cleared of secretions via suctioning before cleaning to
ensure the client remains oxygenated and the site stays clean during the procedure.
, 6. Which food choice is most appropriate for a client on a low-sodium diet?
A. Canned vegetable soup
B. Fresh steamed broccoli
C. Smoked ham sandwich
D. Pickled cucumbers
Answer: B
Rationale: Fresh vegetables are naturally low in sodium. Canned, smoked, and pickled
foods are typically very high in sodium used for preservation.
7. What is the priority nursing action for a client experiencing a tonic-clonic
seizure?
A. Place a padded tongue blade in the mouth
B. Turn the client to the side-lying position
C. Restrain the client’s limbs to prevent injury
D. Administer oral glucose immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: Turning the client to the side helps maintain a patent airway and prevents
aspiration of saliva or vomitus during the seizure.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro. When should the nurse
instruct the client to eat?
A. Within 15 minutes of the injection
B. 1 hour after the injection
C. Only if they feel hypoglycemic
D. 30 to 45 minutes before the injection
Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes. Eating
within this window is crucial to prevent hypoglycemia.
UPDATE
1. Which client should the nurse assess first after receiving the change-of-shift
report?
A. A client with asthma who has a newly developed audible wheeze
B. A client with heart failure who reports a 2-pound weight gain in 24 hours
C. A client with diabetes whose fingerstick glucose is 150 mg/dL
D. A client scheduled for a colonoscopy in 2 hours
Answer: A
Rationale: Using the ABC (Airway, Breathing, Circulation) priority framework, the client
with asthma and new wheezing indicates a potential airway obstruction and requires
immediate assessment.
2. A nurse is caring for a client with MRSA in a wound. Which personal
protective equipment (PPE) is essential?
A. N95 respirator and goggles
B. Gloves only
C. Surgical mask and shoe covers
D. Gloves and a gown
Answer: D
Rationale: MRSA in a wound requires Contact Precautions, which include the use of gloves
and a gown when entering the room or having direct contact with the client.
,3. Which medication is commonly held if the client’s apical pulse is less than 60
beats per minute?
A. Furosemide
B. Amlodipine
C. Digoxin
D. Warfarin
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin is a cardiac glycoside that slows the heart rate. It is standard practice to
hold the dose and notify the provider if the apical pulse is below 60 bpm in adults.
4. A client is receiving warfarin for atrial fibrillation. Which laboratory value
should the nurse monitor?
A. PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time)
B. INR (International Normalized Ratio)
C. Serum Potassium
D. White Blood Cell count
Answer: B
Rationale: INR is the standard lab used to monitor the effectiveness and safety of warfarin
therapy. PTT is used for heparin.
5. When performing tracheostomy care, which action should the nurse take
first?
A. Remove the old inner cannula
B. Clean around the stoma with saline
C. Suction the tracheostomy if secretions are present
D. Apply a new sterile tracheostomy dressing
Answer: C
Rationale: The airway must be cleared of secretions via suctioning before cleaning to
ensure the client remains oxygenated and the site stays clean during the procedure.
, 6. Which food choice is most appropriate for a client on a low-sodium diet?
A. Canned vegetable soup
B. Fresh steamed broccoli
C. Smoked ham sandwich
D. Pickled cucumbers
Answer: B
Rationale: Fresh vegetables are naturally low in sodium. Canned, smoked, and pickled
foods are typically very high in sodium used for preservation.
7. What is the priority nursing action for a client experiencing a tonic-clonic
seizure?
A. Place a padded tongue blade in the mouth
B. Turn the client to the side-lying position
C. Restrain the client’s limbs to prevent injury
D. Administer oral glucose immediately
Answer: B
Rationale: Turning the client to the side helps maintain a patent airway and prevents
aspiration of saliva or vomitus during the seizure.
8. A nurse is preparing to administer insulin lispro. When should the nurse
instruct the client to eat?
A. Within 15 minutes of the injection
B. 1 hour after the injection
C. Only if they feel hypoglycemic
D. 30 to 45 minutes before the injection
Answer: A
Rationale: Insulin lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes. Eating
within this window is crucial to prevent hypoglycemia.
