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NU 189 / NU189 EXAM | Medical-Surgical Nursing II Guide | Galen College | 100% Verified Q&A | Grade A | Pass Guaranteed

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Pass NU 189 Exam 1 on your first attempt with this comprehensive Medical-Surgical Nursing II guide featuring 100% verified questions and answers for the update at Galen College! This Grade A resource for Medical-Surgical Nursing II (NU 189 / NU189) Exam 1 contains verified questions with correct answers covering all essential advanced med-surg nursing concepts. Featuring comprehensive coverage of cardiovascular disorders (hypertension, heart failure (systolic vs diastolic, NYHA classification, HFrEF vs HFpEF), coronary artery disease (CAD), myocardial infarction (STEMI vs NSTEMI), angina (stable, unstable, variant), dysrhythmias (atrial fibrillation, ventricular tachycardia, heart blocks), valvular heart disease (stenosis vs regurgitation), endocarditis, pericarditis, cardiomyopathy (dilated, hypertrophic, restrictive), vascular disorders (peripheral artery disease (PAD), peripheral venous disease, aortic aneurysm, aortic dissection), respiratory disorders (COPD (emphysema vs chronic bronchitis), asthma (status asthmaticus), pneumonia (community-acquired, hospital-acquired, aspiration), tuberculosis, pulmonary embolism (PE), pulmonary hypertension, acute respiratory distress syndrome (ARDS), respiratory failure (hypoxemic vs hypercapnic), chest tube management, mechanical ventilation (settings, modes, alarms), renal and urinary disorders (acute kidney injury (AKI) (prerenal, intrinsic, postrenal), chronic kidney disease (CKD) (stages 1-5), end-stage renal disease (ESRD), glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome, nephrosclerosis, polycystic kidney disease, renal calculi, urinary tract infections (pyelonephritis, cystitis, urethritis), urinary incontinence, dialysis (hemodialysis (AV fistula/graft, access complications), peritoneal dialysis), kidney transplant, gastrointestinal disorders (GERD, peptic ulcer disease (PUD), gastritis, gastroenteritis, inflammatory bowel disease (Crohn's vs ulcerative colitis), diverticulitis, appendicitis, peritonitis, hepatitis (A, B, C, D, E), cirrhosis (compensated vs decompensated), portal hypertension, esophageal varices, ascites, hepatic encephalopathy, pancreatitis (acute vs chronic), cholelithiasis, cholecystitis, pancreatitis, bowel obstruction, colorectal cancer, ostomy care (colostomy, ileostomy), endocrine disorders (diabetes mellitus (Type 1 vs Type 2) (DKA vs HHNS/HHS), hyperglycemia, hypoglycemia, insulin therapy (rapid, short, intermediate, long-acting), oral hypoglycemics (metformin, sulfonylureas, DPP-4 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists, SGLT2 inhibitors), thyroid disorders (hyperthyroidism (Graves' disease), hypothyroidism (Hashimoto's), thyroid storm, myxedema coma), parathyroid disorders (hyperparathyroidism, hypoparathyroidism), adrenal disorders (Cushing's syndrome, Addison's disease, pheochromocytoma), pituitary disorders (SIADH vs diabetes insipidus), neurological disorders (stroke (ischemic vs hemorrhagic), transient ischemic attack (TIA), seizures (generalized, focal, status epilepticus), Alzheimer's disease, Parkinson's disease, multiple sclerosis, Guillain-Barré syndrome, myasthenia gravis, meningitis, encephalitis, traumatic brain injury (TBI), spinal cord injury (SCI) (autonomic dysreflexia, neurogenic shock), increased intracranial pressure (ICP) (Cushing's triad: hypertension, bradycardia, irregular respirations), immunologic and infectious disorders (HIV/AIDS (CD4 count, viral load, opportunistic infections), tuberculosis, sepsis (SIRS criteria, qSOFA, Sepsis-3), septic shock, anaphylaxis, autoimmune disorders (rheumatoid arthritis, systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), scleroderma), hematologic disorders (anemias (iron-deficiency, pernicious, aplastic, hemolytic), sickle cell disease, polycythemia, thrombocytopenia, hemophilia, disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC), leukemia, lymphoma, multiple myeloma), musculoskeletal disorders (osteoarthritis vs rheumatoid arthritis, gout, osteoporosis, osteomyelitis, fractures (open, closed, comminuted, greenstick), compartment syndrome, fat embolism syndrome, joint replacements (hip, knee)), pain management (opioid vs non-opioid, PCA, epidural, non-pharmacological interventions), perioperative nursing care (preoperative (informed consent, NPO, medications, checklist), intraoperative (surgical asepsis, positioning, monitoring), postoperative (PACU, complications: atelectasis, DVT, PE, wound infection, dehiscence, evisceration, hemorrhage), fluid and electrolyte imbalances (dehydration, fluid overload, sodium (hyponatremia, hypernatremia), potassium (hypokalemia, hyperkalemia), calcium (hypocalcemia, hypercalcemia), magnesium (hypomagnesemia, hypermagnesemia), acid-base disorders (metabolic acidosis/alkalosis, respiratory acidosis/alkalosis), laboratory interpretation (CBC, BMP, CMP, coagulation studies (PT/INR, PTT), cardiac biomarkers (troponin, CK-MB, BNP/NT-proBNP), ABG analysis, urinalysis, cultures), medication calculations and safety (dosage calculations, high-alert medications, look-alike sound-alike (LASA), rights of medication administration), leadership and delegation (delegation to LPN and UAP, supervision, prioritization (Maslow, ABCs), ethics and legal issues (informed consent, advance directives, HIPAA, mandatory reporting, end-of-life care). With detailed rationales, clinical case scenarios, NCLEX-style questions, and our Pass Guarantee, this is the definitive tool for Galen College nursing students seeking a top score on NU 189 Exam 1. Download now and excel in your Medical-Surgical Nursing II course with confidence!

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​ U 189 / NU189 EXAM 1​
N
​2026-2027 | Medical-Surgical​
​Nursing II Guide | Galen College |​
​100% Verified Q&A | Grade A |​
​Pass Guaranteed​
​## Part A: Multiple Choice (Q1‑55)​

*​ *Q1 (Cardiovascular – Heart Failure):** A 72‑year‑old male with heart failure (HFrEF) reports​
​shortness of breath when lying flat and awakens at night gasping for air. He has 2+ pitting​
​edema in both lower extremities and an S3 gallop. Which medication is most likely to be ordered​
​as first‑line therapy to reduce mortality?​
​A. Furosemide​
​B. Digoxin​
​C. Metoprolol succinate​
​D. Spironolactone​
​**[CORRECT]** C​
​*Rationale: Beta‑blockers (metoprolol succinate, carvedilol, bisoprolol) are first‑line for HFrEF to​
​reduce mortality and hospitalizations per 2022 AHA/ACC/HFSA guidelines. Furosemide (A)​
​relieves symptoms but does not improve survival. Digoxin (B) is for symptom control in​
​refractory HF. Spironolactone (D) is used in advanced HF but not first‑line before beta‑blockers.​
​Test tip: "GDMT" for HFrEF includes beta‑blockers, ACEi/ARB/ARNI, and SGLT2i – remember​
​the mortality benefit.*​

*​ *Q2 (Cardiovascular – Heart Failure):** A patient with chronic heart failure is instructed to​
​monitor daily weights. The nurse should teach the patient to report a weight gain of how many​
​pounds in one day?​
​A. 1 pound​
​B. 2 pounds​
​C. 3 pounds​
​D. 5 pounds​
​**[CORRECT]** C​

,*​ Rationale: A weight gain of 3 pounds in one day or 5 pounds in one week indicates fluid​
​retention and requires provider notification per heart failure management protocols. This early​
​intervention prevents acute decompensation. One pound (A) is too sensitive, while 5 pounds in​
​one day (D) represents significant overload that should have been caught earlier.*​

*​ *Q3 (Cardiovascular – CAD/Angina):** A 58‑year‑old male with stable angina experiences​
​chest pain while climbing stairs. He stops and takes a sublingual nitroglycerin tablet. After 5​
​minutes, the pain persists. What is the nurse's priority action?​
​A. Call 911 immediately​
​B. Administer a second nitroglycerin tablet​
​C. Have the patient lie down and rest​
​D. Administer aspirin 325 mg​
​**[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: Per AHA guidelines, if angina persists after 5 minutes, a second nitroglycerin tablet​
​may be taken. If pain persists after a third tablet (15 minutes total), emergency services should​
​be called. Calling 911 (A) is premature at 5 minutes for stable angina. Resting (C) was already​
​attempted. Aspirin (D) is appropriate for suspected MI but not routine angina management.*​

*​ *Q4 (Cardiovascular – MI):** A patient with suspected acute MI presents with ST‑segment​
​elevation in leads V1‑V4. Which intervention has the highest priority?​
​A. Administer morphine sulfate​
​B. Obtain cardiac biomarkers​
​C. Initiate reperfusion therapy (PCI)​
​D. Administer supplemental oxygen​
​**[CORRECT]** C​
​*Rationale: STEMI requires immediate reperfusion therapy – PCI within 90 minutes of first​
​medical contact is the gold standard per ACC/AHA guidelines. "Time is muscle" – every minute​
​of delay increases myocardial damage. While oxygen (D), morphine (A), and biomarkers (B) are​
​important, they are secondary to restoring coronary blood flow.*​

*​ *Q5 (Cardiovascular – Dysrhythmias):** A patient with atrial fibrillation has a heart rate of 150​
​bpm and blood pressure of 88/52 mmHg. Which intervention should the nurse anticipate?​
​A. Administer IV metoprolol​
​B. Perform synchronized cardioversion​
​C. Administer IV digoxin​
​D. Start IV heparin infusion​
​**[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: Unstable atrial fibrillation with hypotension (SBP <90 mmHg) requires immediate​
​synchronized cardioversion per ACLS protocols. Rate control agents like metoprolol (A) or​
​digoxin (C) are contraindicated in unstable patients as they may worsen hypotension. Heparin​
​(D) is for stroke prevention but does not address the immediate hemodynamic instability.*​

*​ *Q6 (Cardiovascular – Hypertension):** According to current ACC/AHA guidelines, which blood​
​pressure reading meets the threshold for Stage 2 hypertension?​

, ​ . 128/82 mmHg​
A
​B. 135/88 mmHg​
​C. 142/92 mmHg​
​D. 118/78 mmHg​
​**[CORRECT]** C​
​*Rationale: Stage 2 hypertension is defined as SBP ≥140 mmHg or DBP ≥90 mmHg per 2017​
​ACC/AHA guidelines. Option C (142/92) meets this threshold. Option A is elevated, B is Stage​
​1, and D is normal. First‑line treatment for Stage 2 includes thiazide diuretics, ACE inhibitors,​
​ARBs, or calcium channel blockers.*​

*​ *Q7 (Cardiovascular – Valvular Disease):** A 68‑year‑old patient reports syncope, angina, and​
​dyspnea on exertion. On auscultation, a harsh systolic ejection murmur is heard at the right​
​upper sternal border radiating to the carotids. Which valvular disorder is most likely?​
​A. Mitral regurgitation​
​B. Aortic stenosis​
​C. Mitral stenosis​
​D. Aortic regurgitation​
​**[CORRECT]** B​
​*Rationale: The triad of syncope, angina, and dyspnea (SAD) is classic for aortic stenosis. The​
​harsh systolic ejection murmur at the right upper sternal border radiating to the carotids confirms​
​this diagnosis. Mitral regurgitation (A) produces a holosystolic murmur at the apex. Mitral​
​stenosis (C) causes a diastolic rumble. Aortic regurgitation (D) produces a diastolic blowing​
​murmur.*​

*​ *Q8 (Cardiovascular – Heart Failure):** A patient with HFrEF is prescribed sacubitril/valsartan​
​(Entresto). Which previous medication must be discontinued before starting this therapy?​
​A. Furosemide​
​B. Metoprolol​
​C. Lisinopril​
​D. Digoxin​
​**[CORRECT]** C​
​*Rationale: Sacubitril/valsartan is an ARNI that replaces ACE inhibitors or ARBs. ACE inhibitors​
​like lisinopril must be discontinued 36 hours before starting Entresto to prevent angioedema.​
​Furosemide (A), metoprolol (B), and digoxin (D) can be continued as part of GDMT. Test tip:​
​"ACE to ARNI = 36‑hour washout."*​

*​ *Q9 (Cardiovascular – MI Complications):** Three days post‑MI, a patient develops a​
​pericardial friction rub, fever, and pleuritic chest pain relieved by sitting forward. Which​
​complication is most likely?​
​A. Papillary muscle rupture​
​B. Dressler's syndrome​
​C. Ventricular free wall rupture​
​D. Cardiogenic shock​
​**[CORRECT]** B​

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