BIOL 252 Human Anatomy and Physiology II Post Lab #2 Heart,
Blood Vessels, And Blood Pressure Real Test Review/ BSU
BIOL 252 Lab 2 Review Test Submission 2026 2027
Exam
Section 1: Blood & Hematology (Q1–20)
Q1. Which plasma protein is essential for blood clot formation?
A) Albumin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Globulin
D) Transferrin
Answer: B
Rationale: Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin to form a clot.
Q2. A patient has a hematocrit of 30% (normal ~45%). This indicates:
A) Polycythemia
B) Anemia
C) Dehydration
D) Leukocytosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Low hematocrit means fewer RBCs = anemia.
Q3. Which leukocyte releases histamine and heparin?
A) Neutrophil
B) Eosinophil
C) Basophil
D) Monocyte
,Answer: C
Rationale: Basophil granules contain histamine (vasodilation) and heparin
(anticoagulant).
Q4. Hemoglobin that has released O₂ is called:
A) Oxyhemoglobin
B) Deoxyhemoglobin
C) Carbaminohemoglobin
D) Methemoglobin
Answer: B
Rationale: Deoxyhemoglobin = reduced hemoglobin without bound O₂.
Q5. Erythrocyte production is stimulated by:
A) High blood O₂ levels
B) Erythropoietin
C) Thrombopoietin
D) Interleukin-2
Answer: B
Rationale: EPO from kidneys stimulates RBC production in bone marrow.
Q6. A blood smear shows many bands (immature neutrophils). This suggests:
A) Parasitic infection
B) Acute bacterial infection
C) Viral infection
D) Allergic reaction
Answer: B
Rationale: "Left shift" = increased bands = body is rapidly producing neutrophils
for bacterial infection.
,Q7. The primary site of RBC destruction is the:
A) Liver
B) Bone marrow
C) Spleen
D) Kidney
Answer: C
Rationale: Old RBCs are phagocytized by macrophages in the spleen.
Q8. Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
A) Transport O₂ and CO₂
B) Regulation of pH
C) Production of ATP
D) Defense against pathogens
Answer: C
Rationale: ATP production occurs in cells, not in blood itself.
Q9. A person with type O blood can donate to:
A) Type O only
B) Type A only
C) Type B only
D) All types (universal donor)
Answer: A
Rationale: Type O has no A/B antigens but has anti-A/anti-B antibodies, so they
can only receive O.
Q10. A person with type AB blood can receive from:
A) Type AB only
B) All types (universal recipient)
C) Type O only
D) Type A only
, Answer: B
Rationale: AB has no anti-A/anti-B antibodies → can receive any ABO type.
Q11. Which metal ion is at the center of the heme group?
A) Magnesium
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Zinc
Answer: C
Rationale: Fe²⁺ binds O₂ reversibly in hemoglobin.
Q12. Carbon dioxide is transported in blood mainly as:
A) Dissolved CO₂
B) Carbaminohemoglobin
C) Bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)
D) Carbonic acid
Answer: C
Rationale: ~70% of CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate in plasma.
Q13. Which condition would cause an increase in RBC count?
A) High altitude
B) Liver failure
C) Iron deficiency
D) Kidney failure (loss of EPO)
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypoxia at altitude stimulates EPO release → increased RBCs.
Q14. A platelet count of 50,000/μL (normal 150,000–450,000) increases risk of:
A) Thrombosis
B) Bleeding
Blood Vessels, And Blood Pressure Real Test Review/ BSU
BIOL 252 Lab 2 Review Test Submission 2026 2027
Exam
Section 1: Blood & Hematology (Q1–20)
Q1. Which plasma protein is essential for blood clot formation?
A) Albumin
B) Fibrinogen
C) Globulin
D) Transferrin
Answer: B
Rationale: Fibrinogen is converted to fibrin to form a clot.
Q2. A patient has a hematocrit of 30% (normal ~45%). This indicates:
A) Polycythemia
B) Anemia
C) Dehydration
D) Leukocytosis
Answer: B
Rationale: Low hematocrit means fewer RBCs = anemia.
Q3. Which leukocyte releases histamine and heparin?
A) Neutrophil
B) Eosinophil
C) Basophil
D) Monocyte
,Answer: C
Rationale: Basophil granules contain histamine (vasodilation) and heparin
(anticoagulant).
Q4. Hemoglobin that has released O₂ is called:
A) Oxyhemoglobin
B) Deoxyhemoglobin
C) Carbaminohemoglobin
D) Methemoglobin
Answer: B
Rationale: Deoxyhemoglobin = reduced hemoglobin without bound O₂.
Q5. Erythrocyte production is stimulated by:
A) High blood O₂ levels
B) Erythropoietin
C) Thrombopoietin
D) Interleukin-2
Answer: B
Rationale: EPO from kidneys stimulates RBC production in bone marrow.
Q6. A blood smear shows many bands (immature neutrophils). This suggests:
A) Parasitic infection
B) Acute bacterial infection
C) Viral infection
D) Allergic reaction
Answer: B
Rationale: "Left shift" = increased bands = body is rapidly producing neutrophils
for bacterial infection.
,Q7. The primary site of RBC destruction is the:
A) Liver
B) Bone marrow
C) Spleen
D) Kidney
Answer: C
Rationale: Old RBCs are phagocytized by macrophages in the spleen.
Q8. Which of the following is NOT a function of blood?
A) Transport O₂ and CO₂
B) Regulation of pH
C) Production of ATP
D) Defense against pathogens
Answer: C
Rationale: ATP production occurs in cells, not in blood itself.
Q9. A person with type O blood can donate to:
A) Type O only
B) Type A only
C) Type B only
D) All types (universal donor)
Answer: A
Rationale: Type O has no A/B antigens but has anti-A/anti-B antibodies, so they
can only receive O.
Q10. A person with type AB blood can receive from:
A) Type AB only
B) All types (universal recipient)
C) Type O only
D) Type A only
, Answer: B
Rationale: AB has no anti-A/anti-B antibodies → can receive any ABO type.
Q11. Which metal ion is at the center of the heme group?
A) Magnesium
B) Calcium
C) Iron
D) Zinc
Answer: C
Rationale: Fe²⁺ binds O₂ reversibly in hemoglobin.
Q12. Carbon dioxide is transported in blood mainly as:
A) Dissolved CO₂
B) Carbaminohemoglobin
C) Bicarbonate (HCO₃⁻)
D) Carbonic acid
Answer: C
Rationale: ~70% of CO₂ is transported as bicarbonate in plasma.
Q13. Which condition would cause an increase in RBC count?
A) High altitude
B) Liver failure
C) Iron deficiency
D) Kidney failure (loss of EPO)
Answer: A
Rationale: Hypoxia at altitude stimulates EPO release → increased RBCs.
Q14. A platelet count of 50,000/μL (normal 150,000–450,000) increases risk of:
A) Thrombosis
B) Bleeding
