[WEST COAST EMT BLOCK 2 EXAM] – QUESTIONS
AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED
ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED
PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE | STUVIA VERIFIED |
EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
1. A patient with severe respiratory distress is unable to speak more than one word at a
time. What is the EMT’s priority action?
A. Obtain a SAMPLE history
B. Apply high-flow oxygen and assist ventilation if needed
C. Check blood glucose levels
D. Splint the patient’s extremities
Correct Answer: B. Apply high-flow oxygen and assist ventilation if needed
Rationale:
Severe respiratory distress requires immediate airway and breathing support before additional
assessment or interventions are performed.
2. Which assessment finding is most consistent with compensated shock?
A. Bradycardia and warm skin
B. Hypotension and unequal pupils
C. Pale skin with rapid pulse
D. Slow respirations and cyanosis
Correct Answer: C. Pale skin with rapid pulse
Rationale:
Compensated shock commonly presents with tachycardia, pale cool skin, and anxiety while
blood pressure may still remain normal.
3. During a primary assessment, what should the EMT identify first?
A. Insurance information
B. Immediate life threats
C. Medication allergies
D. Past medical history
Correct Answer: B. Immediate life threats
,Rationale:
The primary assessment focuses on detecting and correcting immediate threats to airway,
breathing, and circulation.
4. A patient reports chest pain that worsens during inhalation. This pain is best described
as:
A. Visceral pain
B. Radiating pain
C. Referred pain
D. Pleuritic pain
Correct Answer: D. Pleuritic pain
Rationale:
Pleuritic pain increases during breathing or coughing and is commonly associated with
respiratory conditions.
5. Which pulse should be checked in an unresponsive adult patient?
A. Brachial pulse
B. Femoral pulse
C. Radial pulse
D. Carotid pulse
Correct Answer: D. Carotid pulse
Rationale:
The carotid artery is the recommended pulse site for assessing circulation in an unresponsive
adult.
6. A diabetic patient is confused, pale, and diaphoretic. Which condition should the EMT
suspect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Stroke
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C. Hypoglycemia
Rationale:
Low blood sugar commonly causes altered mental status, sweating, shakiness, and pale skin.
7. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
A. Blood in the airway
, B. Swelling of the trachea
C. Aspirated foreign body
D. Relaxation of the tongue
Correct Answer: D. Relaxation of the tongue
Rationale:
In unconscious patients, the tongue often falls backward and obstructs the airway due to muscle
relaxation.
8. Which device is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen to a breathing
patient?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Venturi mask
C. Nonrebreather mask
D. Simple face mask
Correct Answer: C. Nonrebreather mask
Rationale:
A nonrebreather mask can deliver oxygen concentrations up to approximately 95% when
properly applied.
9. A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has absent breath sounds on the left side
and severe respiratory distress. Which condition is most likely?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Asthma attack
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B. Tension pneumothorax
Rationale:
Absent unilateral breath sounds with respiratory distress after trauma strongly suggests a
tension pneumothorax.
10. What is the purpose of the rapid trauma assessment?
A. Obtain insurance information
B. Determine patient allergies
C. Detect hidden life-threatening injuries
D. Calculate medication dosages
Correct Answer: C. Detect hidden life-threatening injuries
, Rationale:
The rapid trauma assessment identifies significant injuries that may not be immediately obvious
during the initial evaluation.
11. Which patient should receive immediate spinal motion restriction?
A. Alert patient with isolated ankle pain
B. Patient with headache only
C. Patient with altered mental status after a fall
D. Patient with a nosebleed
Correct Answer: C. Patient with altered mental status after a fall
Rationale:
Altered mental status after trauma raises concern for spinal injury and requires spinal
precautions.
12. A patient is breathing 6 times per minute. What should the EMT do?
A. Apply a cold compress
B. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask
C. Encourage the patient to breathe faster
D. Administer oral glucose
Correct Answer: B. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask
Rationale:
Respiratory rates below normal with inadequate ventilation require assisted breathing support.
13. Which finding indicates inadequate breathing?
A. Equal chest rise
B. Respiratory rate of 18
C. Cyanosis around the lips
D. Ability to speak clearly
Correct Answer: C. Cyanosis around the lips
Rationale:
Cyanosis suggests insufficient oxygenation and inadequate respiratory function.
14. What is the normal respiratory rate range for an adult?
A. 4–8 breaths per minute
B. 8–10 breaths per minute
C. 12–20 breaths per minute
D. 24–30 breaths per minute
AND ANSWERS | VERIFIED AND WELL DETAILED
ANSWERS | PLUS RATIONALES | GUARANTEED
PASS | LATEST EXAM UPDATE | STUVIA VERIFIED |
EXAM PREP | STUDY GUIDE | PRACTICE TEST
1. A patient with severe respiratory distress is unable to speak more than one word at a
time. What is the EMT’s priority action?
A. Obtain a SAMPLE history
B. Apply high-flow oxygen and assist ventilation if needed
C. Check blood glucose levels
D. Splint the patient’s extremities
Correct Answer: B. Apply high-flow oxygen and assist ventilation if needed
Rationale:
Severe respiratory distress requires immediate airway and breathing support before additional
assessment or interventions are performed.
2. Which assessment finding is most consistent with compensated shock?
A. Bradycardia and warm skin
B. Hypotension and unequal pupils
C. Pale skin with rapid pulse
D. Slow respirations and cyanosis
Correct Answer: C. Pale skin with rapid pulse
Rationale:
Compensated shock commonly presents with tachycardia, pale cool skin, and anxiety while
blood pressure may still remain normal.
3. During a primary assessment, what should the EMT identify first?
A. Insurance information
B. Immediate life threats
C. Medication allergies
D. Past medical history
Correct Answer: B. Immediate life threats
,Rationale:
The primary assessment focuses on detecting and correcting immediate threats to airway,
breathing, and circulation.
4. A patient reports chest pain that worsens during inhalation. This pain is best described
as:
A. Visceral pain
B. Radiating pain
C. Referred pain
D. Pleuritic pain
Correct Answer: D. Pleuritic pain
Rationale:
Pleuritic pain increases during breathing or coughing and is commonly associated with
respiratory conditions.
5. Which pulse should be checked in an unresponsive adult patient?
A. Brachial pulse
B. Femoral pulse
C. Radial pulse
D. Carotid pulse
Correct Answer: D. Carotid pulse
Rationale:
The carotid artery is the recommended pulse site for assessing circulation in an unresponsive
adult.
6. A diabetic patient is confused, pale, and diaphoretic. Which condition should the EMT
suspect?
A. Hyperglycemia
B. Stroke
C. Hypoglycemia
D. Hypertension
Correct Answer: C. Hypoglycemia
Rationale:
Low blood sugar commonly causes altered mental status, sweating, shakiness, and pale skin.
7. What is the most common cause of airway obstruction in an unconscious patient?
A. Blood in the airway
, B. Swelling of the trachea
C. Aspirated foreign body
D. Relaxation of the tongue
Correct Answer: D. Relaxation of the tongue
Rationale:
In unconscious patients, the tongue often falls backward and obstructs the airway due to muscle
relaxation.
8. Which device is used to deliver the highest concentration of oxygen to a breathing
patient?
A. Nasal cannula
B. Venturi mask
C. Nonrebreather mask
D. Simple face mask
Correct Answer: C. Nonrebreather mask
Rationale:
A nonrebreather mask can deliver oxygen concentrations up to approximately 95% when
properly applied.
9. A patient involved in a motor vehicle collision has absent breath sounds on the left side
and severe respiratory distress. Which condition is most likely?
A. Pulmonary edema
B. Tension pneumothorax
C. Asthma attack
D. Hyperglycemia
Correct Answer: B. Tension pneumothorax
Rationale:
Absent unilateral breath sounds with respiratory distress after trauma strongly suggests a
tension pneumothorax.
10. What is the purpose of the rapid trauma assessment?
A. Obtain insurance information
B. Determine patient allergies
C. Detect hidden life-threatening injuries
D. Calculate medication dosages
Correct Answer: C. Detect hidden life-threatening injuries
, Rationale:
The rapid trauma assessment identifies significant injuries that may not be immediately obvious
during the initial evaluation.
11. Which patient should receive immediate spinal motion restriction?
A. Alert patient with isolated ankle pain
B. Patient with headache only
C. Patient with altered mental status after a fall
D. Patient with a nosebleed
Correct Answer: C. Patient with altered mental status after a fall
Rationale:
Altered mental status after trauma raises concern for spinal injury and requires spinal
precautions.
12. A patient is breathing 6 times per minute. What should the EMT do?
A. Apply a cold compress
B. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask
C. Encourage the patient to breathe faster
D. Administer oral glucose
Correct Answer: B. Assist ventilations with a bag-valve mask
Rationale:
Respiratory rates below normal with inadequate ventilation require assisted breathing support.
13. Which finding indicates inadequate breathing?
A. Equal chest rise
B. Respiratory rate of 18
C. Cyanosis around the lips
D. Ability to speak clearly
Correct Answer: C. Cyanosis around the lips
Rationale:
Cyanosis suggests insufficient oxygenation and inadequate respiratory function.
14. What is the normal respiratory rate range for an adult?
A. 4–8 breaths per minute
B. 8–10 breaths per minute
C. 12–20 breaths per minute
D. 24–30 breaths per minute
