MSN 671 NEI GLOBAL VIDEO QUESTIONS
2026 TEST BANK COLLECTION COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND EXPERT VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS GRADED A+
⩥ A 16-year-old female presents with complaints of fever, lethargy, and
night sweats. The patient also reports a 6-kilogram (13.2 pound) weight
loss in the past 3 months. On examination, painless, enlarged cervical
and supraclavicular lymph nodes are palpated. A fine-needle aspiration
biopsy of one of the lymph nodes is shown in the image. The patient's
findings are most suggestive of which of the following? (see photo)
Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma
⩥ A 16-year-old male presents with fatigue, easy bruisability, and weight
loss. On examination, hepatosplenomegaly is noted. After a detailed
evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia.
Which of the following is used in the management of this patient's
condition
Answer: L-asparaginase
⩥ A 57-year-old patient with lymphoma complains of nausea after
starting morphine. Which of the following is most accurate regarding
nausea and vomiting due to opioids?
Answer: After starting opioids, nausea, often improves within a few days
,⩥ A 43-year-old man presents to the clinic for evaluation after
abnormalities noted on a routine set of labs. CBC with differential
demonstrated hemoglobin 14 g/dL, WBC count 26,000/microL,
lymphocytes 21,000/microL, neutrophils 4500/microL, and platelets
260,000/microL. The basic metabolic panel demonstrates normal
electrolytes and renal function. LFTs show total bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL and
normal liver enzymes. On examination in office, his examination is
normal, with no palpable lymph nodes or hepatosplenomegaly. He
denies any B symptoms. Peripheral smear shows lymphocytosis with
many small lymphocytes and smudge cells. Which of the following is
the next best step in the management of this patient?
Answer: Observation and close follow up
⩥ A 65-year-old woman presents with an 8-month history of recurrent
low-grade fevers, a 3-month history of abdominal fullness, and more
recently, fatigue and moderately reduced exercise tolerance. Before this,
she was in good health with no major medical conditions. Upon
examination, she appeared to be stable and in no acute distress. She has
a heart rate of 95 bpm and blood pressure of 128/60 mmHg. She had
several palpable cervical and axillary lymph nodes (1-2 cm) that were
non-tender and freely mobile. She also had palpable splenomegaly. No
other abdominal masses/hepatomegaly appreciated on examination. Her
complete blood count showed a leukocyte count of 32,000/mm3,
hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL, platelet count of 145,000/mm3, neutrophil
count 1,900/mm3, lymphocyte count 30,000/mm3, elevated LDH, and
elevated reticulocyte count. Peripheral blood smear showed an
increasing number of mature lymphocytes, spherocytes, and pol
,Answer: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
⩥ A 67-year-old female with a performance status of 0, is brought to the
clinic with symptomatic anemia and has required several transfusions
over the past 2 to 3 months. Currently, her hemoglobin is 7.5 g/dL,
absolute neutrophil count 1500/microL and platelet count is
119,000/microL. She had a bone marrow biopsy performed that reveals
myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with 6% blasts and cytogenetics
positive for 5q deletion. She did not have any mutations or other
cytogenetic abnormalities. Which of the following is the best initial
course of treatment?
Answer: A thalidomide derivative
⩥ A 36-year-old woman with a past medical history significant for
menorrhagia from uterine fibroids presents with exertional dyspnea and
fatigue. Examination shows conjunctival pallor. Laboratory tests reveal a
hemoglobin of 6.2 grams/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 fl
(normal: 80-100 fl), and normal liver function tests. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
Answer: Iron deficiency anemia
⩥ A 59-year-old male patient with a history of non-Hodgkins lymphoma
treated with cyclophosphamide, adriamycin, vincristine, and prednisone
eight years ago presents with a new diagnosis of myelodysplastic
syndrome. Bone marrow biopsy reveals 12% blasts and greater than
10% dysplasia in the erythroid and granulocytic lineages. Fluorescence
in situ hybridization (FISH) revealed monosomy 7. He asks you about
, the risk of transformation into acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What is
the risk of treatment-related myelodysplastic syndrome transforming
into AML
Answer: 50% of patients will transform into AML
⩥ A 45-year-old asymptomatic man is found to have leukocytosis on a
preoperative complete blood count. His physical examination is
significant for the spleen tip being palpable 2 cm below the left costal
margin. Enlarged, rubbery, nontender lymph nodes up to 1.5 cm in size
are present in the axillae and inguinal regions. Laboratory workup
reveals a hemoglobin of 13.3 g/dL, leukocytes 40,000/microliter, and
platelets 238,000/microliter. His peripheral blood smear shows mature
lymphocytes with smudge cells. If he fails first-line therapy, which of
the following cytogenetic changes would be an indication for stem cell
transplant in this patient?
Answer: 17p deletion
⩥ A 60-year-old asymptomatic man is found to have leukocytosis on a
preoperative CBC. Physical examination shows the spleen tip to be
palpable 2 cm below the left costal margin. Rubbery, nontender lymph
nodes up to 1.5 cm in size are present in the axillae and inguinal regions.
Laboratory data include the following: Hgb: 13.3 g/dL (normal 14 to 18)
Leukocytes: 40,000/microL (normal 4300 to 10,800) Platelet count:
238,000 (normal 150,000 to 400,000) His peripheral blood smear is
shown in the accompanying photo. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis? (see photo)
Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
2026 TEST BANK COLLECTION COMPLETE
QUESTIONS AND EXPERT VERIFIED
SOLUTIONS GRADED A+
⩥ A 16-year-old female presents with complaints of fever, lethargy, and
night sweats. The patient also reports a 6-kilogram (13.2 pound) weight
loss in the past 3 months. On examination, painless, enlarged cervical
and supraclavicular lymph nodes are palpated. A fine-needle aspiration
biopsy of one of the lymph nodes is shown in the image. The patient's
findings are most suggestive of which of the following? (see photo)
Answer: Hodgkin lymphoma
⩥ A 16-year-old male presents with fatigue, easy bruisability, and weight
loss. On examination, hepatosplenomegaly is noted. After a detailed
evaluation, the patient is diagnosed with acute lymphocytic leukemia.
Which of the following is used in the management of this patient's
condition
Answer: L-asparaginase
⩥ A 57-year-old patient with lymphoma complains of nausea after
starting morphine. Which of the following is most accurate regarding
nausea and vomiting due to opioids?
Answer: After starting opioids, nausea, often improves within a few days
,⩥ A 43-year-old man presents to the clinic for evaluation after
abnormalities noted on a routine set of labs. CBC with differential
demonstrated hemoglobin 14 g/dL, WBC count 26,000/microL,
lymphocytes 21,000/microL, neutrophils 4500/microL, and platelets
260,000/microL. The basic metabolic panel demonstrates normal
electrolytes and renal function. LFTs show total bilirubin 1.2 mg/dL and
normal liver enzymes. On examination in office, his examination is
normal, with no palpable lymph nodes or hepatosplenomegaly. He
denies any B symptoms. Peripheral smear shows lymphocytosis with
many small lymphocytes and smudge cells. Which of the following is
the next best step in the management of this patient?
Answer: Observation and close follow up
⩥ A 65-year-old woman presents with an 8-month history of recurrent
low-grade fevers, a 3-month history of abdominal fullness, and more
recently, fatigue and moderately reduced exercise tolerance. Before this,
she was in good health with no major medical conditions. Upon
examination, she appeared to be stable and in no acute distress. She has
a heart rate of 95 bpm and blood pressure of 128/60 mmHg. She had
several palpable cervical and axillary lymph nodes (1-2 cm) that were
non-tender and freely mobile. She also had palpable splenomegaly. No
other abdominal masses/hepatomegaly appreciated on examination. Her
complete blood count showed a leukocyte count of 32,000/mm3,
hemoglobin of 9.8 g/dL, platelet count of 145,000/mm3, neutrophil
count 1,900/mm3, lymphocyte count 30,000/mm3, elevated LDH, and
elevated reticulocyte count. Peripheral blood smear showed an
increasing number of mature lymphocytes, spherocytes, and pol
,Answer: Autoimmune hemolytic anemia
⩥ A 67-year-old female with a performance status of 0, is brought to the
clinic with symptomatic anemia and has required several transfusions
over the past 2 to 3 months. Currently, her hemoglobin is 7.5 g/dL,
absolute neutrophil count 1500/microL and platelet count is
119,000/microL. She had a bone marrow biopsy performed that reveals
myelodysplastic syndrome (MDS) with 6% blasts and cytogenetics
positive for 5q deletion. She did not have any mutations or other
cytogenetic abnormalities. Which of the following is the best initial
course of treatment?
Answer: A thalidomide derivative
⩥ A 36-year-old woman with a past medical history significant for
menorrhagia from uterine fibroids presents with exertional dyspnea and
fatigue. Examination shows conjunctival pallor. Laboratory tests reveal a
hemoglobin of 6.2 grams/dL, mean corpuscular volume (MCV) 60 fl
(normal: 80-100 fl), and normal liver function tests. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
Answer: Iron deficiency anemia
⩥ A 59-year-old male patient with a history of non-Hodgkins lymphoma
treated with cyclophosphamide, adriamycin, vincristine, and prednisone
eight years ago presents with a new diagnosis of myelodysplastic
syndrome. Bone marrow biopsy reveals 12% blasts and greater than
10% dysplasia in the erythroid and granulocytic lineages. Fluorescence
in situ hybridization (FISH) revealed monosomy 7. He asks you about
, the risk of transformation into acute myeloid leukemia (AML). What is
the risk of treatment-related myelodysplastic syndrome transforming
into AML
Answer: 50% of patients will transform into AML
⩥ A 45-year-old asymptomatic man is found to have leukocytosis on a
preoperative complete blood count. His physical examination is
significant for the spleen tip being palpable 2 cm below the left costal
margin. Enlarged, rubbery, nontender lymph nodes up to 1.5 cm in size
are present in the axillae and inguinal regions. Laboratory workup
reveals a hemoglobin of 13.3 g/dL, leukocytes 40,000/microliter, and
platelets 238,000/microliter. His peripheral blood smear shows mature
lymphocytes with smudge cells. If he fails first-line therapy, which of
the following cytogenetic changes would be an indication for stem cell
transplant in this patient?
Answer: 17p deletion
⩥ A 60-year-old asymptomatic man is found to have leukocytosis on a
preoperative CBC. Physical examination shows the spleen tip to be
palpable 2 cm below the left costal margin. Rubbery, nontender lymph
nodes up to 1.5 cm in size are present in the axillae and inguinal regions.
Laboratory data include the following: Hgb: 13.3 g/dL (normal 14 to 18)
Leukocytes: 40,000/microL (normal 4300 to 10,800) Platelet count:
238,000 (normal 150,000 to 400,000) His peripheral blood smear is
shown in the accompanying photo. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis? (see photo)
Answer: Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
