ATI FundAmenTAls ProcTored exAm
PreP (2026/2027): 300+ HIgH-YIeld
QuesTIons, deTAIled rATIonAles &
AdPIe APPlIcATIon guIde
This comprehensive study resource features 450+ high-yield multiple-choice questions
specifically designed to mirror the content and difficulty of the ATI Fundamentals
Proctored Exam. Each question includes a bolded correct answer and a detailed
rationale to help you master the "ATI way" of thinking and prioritization. The guide
covers critical nursing pillars, including infection control, medication administration
safety, and the nursing process (ADPIE). By focusing on core physiological needs and
safety protocols, this document provides the essential knowledge required to achieve
a Level 2 or Level 3 proficiency. It is an ideal tool for final-week revision or as a
supplemental resource for students aiming to bridge the gap between classroom
theory and clinical applicatio
1. A nurse is assessing a client’s heart rate and notes a rate of 118 bpm. Which of the
following terms should the nurse use to document this finding?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Bradypnea
D. Hypertension
Rationale: Tachycardia is defined as an adult heart rate greater than 100 bpm.
Bradycardia is less than 60 bpm, while bradypnea refers to a slow respiratory rate.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions is
the priority?
A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 90 degrees during meals.
B. Provide the client with a straw.
C. Offer the client thin liquids.
D. Instruct the client to tilt their head back while swallowing.
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (90 degrees) is the most effective way to use gravity
to prevent aspiration. Straws and thin liquids increase risk, and the head should be
tilted forward (chin-tuck), not back.
,3. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. The label reads 250 mg, and the
provider’s order is for 0.5 g. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 0.5 tablet
D. 4 tablets
Rationale: 0.5 g is equal to 500 mg. Since each tablet is 250 mg, 500 divided by 250
equals 2 tablets.
4. A nurse is performing a physical assessment. Which of the following findings is an
indication of a stage 1 pressure injury?
A. Blistering of the skin.
B. Visible bone or tendon.
C. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin.
D. Partial-thickness skin loss.
Rationale: A stage 1 injury is characterized by redness that does not turn white
(blanch) when pressed, but the skin remains intact.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about a low-fiber diet. Which of the following foods should
the nurse recommend?
A. Whole-grain bread
B. Raw broccoli
C. White rice
D. Fresh apples with skin
Rationale: White rice is a refined grain that is low in fiber (residue), making it
appropriate for a low-fiber diet used to rest the bowel.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative. Which of the following is the priority
intervention to prevent respiratory complications?
A. Administering pain medication.
B. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer every hour.
C. Monitoring intake and output.
D. Changing the surgical dressing.
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes alveolar expansion and prevents atelectasis,
which is the most common early post-operative complication.
7. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which of the following actions is
required to maintain sterile technique?
A. Wear clean gloves while cleaning the labia.
B. Open the sterile kit away from the body.
, C. Touch the 1-inch border of the sterile field with sterile gloves.
D. Clean the insertion site from the bottom to the top.
Rationale: Opening the first flap of a sterile kit away from the body prevents the nurse
from reaching over the sterile field later. The 1-inch border is considered
contaminated.
8. A nurse is assessing a client for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the
nurse expect?
A. Distended neck veins.
B. Hypertension.
C. Dark yellow, concentrated urine.
D. Bradycardia.
Rationale: When fluid volume is low, the kidneys conserve water, resulting in highly
concentrated urine with a high specific gravity.
9. A nurse is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following values is within the
normal range for serum sodium?
A. 125 mEq/L
B. 140 mEq/L
C. 150 mEq/L
D. 130 mEq/L
Rationale: The normal range for serum sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L. Values below 135
indicate hyponatremia; above 145 indicate hypernatremia.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected C. diff infection. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Use an alcohol-based hand rub after care.
B. Wash hands with soap and water after care.
C. Place the client in a negative-pressure room.
D. Wear a surgical mask when entering the room.
Rationale: Alcohol does not kill C. diff spores; physical scrubbing with soap and water is
required to mechanically remove them from the skin.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection into the ventrogluteal site. Which of
the following is a landmark for this site?
A. The greater trochanter.
B. The acromion process.
C. The patella.
D. The iliac crest.
, Rationale: The nurse places the palm on the greater trochanter and the index finger on
the anterior superior iliac spine to locate the ventrogluteal muscle.
12. A nurse is documenting a client’s refusal of a medication. Which of the following is the
correct nursing action?
A. Hide the medication in the client’s food.
B. Tell the client they cannot refuse.
C. Document the refusal and notify the provider.
D. Leave the medication at the bedside in case they change their mind.
Rationale: Clients have the right to refuse treatment. The nurse must respect this,
document it, and inform the provider of the potential impact on the treatment plan.
13. A nurse is caring for a client with a hearing impairment. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A. Shout at the client.
B. Face the client while speaking.
C. Speak directly into the client's "good" ear.
D. Exaggerate lip movements.
Rationale: Facing the client allows them to use visual cues and lip-reading to
supplement what they hear. Shouting can distort sound and seems aggressive.
14. A nurse is teaching a client how to use a cane. When walking, where should the cane be
placed?
A. 6 to 10 inches in front of the feet.
B. 2 feet in front of the feet.
C. Directly next to the weak foot.
D. Behind the body for stability.
Rationale: Moving the cane 6 to 10 inches forward provides a stable base of support
before the client steps forward.
15. A nurse is preparing to administer a sublingual medication. Where should the
medication be placed?
A. Between the cheek and the gum.
B. Under the tongue.
C. On top of the tongue.
D. In the back of the throat.
Rationale: Sublingual means "under the tongue," where the medication is rapidly
absorbed through the highly vascular mucous membrane.
PreP (2026/2027): 300+ HIgH-YIeld
QuesTIons, deTAIled rATIonAles &
AdPIe APPlIcATIon guIde
This comprehensive study resource features 450+ high-yield multiple-choice questions
specifically designed to mirror the content and difficulty of the ATI Fundamentals
Proctored Exam. Each question includes a bolded correct answer and a detailed
rationale to help you master the "ATI way" of thinking and prioritization. The guide
covers critical nursing pillars, including infection control, medication administration
safety, and the nursing process (ADPIE). By focusing on core physiological needs and
safety protocols, this document provides the essential knowledge required to achieve
a Level 2 or Level 3 proficiency. It is an ideal tool for final-week revision or as a
supplemental resource for students aiming to bridge the gap between classroom
theory and clinical applicatio
1. A nurse is assessing a client’s heart rate and notes a rate of 118 bpm. Which of the
following terms should the nurse use to document this finding?
A. Bradycardia
B. Tachycardia
C. Bradypnea
D. Hypertension
Rationale: Tachycardia is defined as an adult heart rate greater than 100 bpm.
Bradycardia is less than 60 bpm, while bradypnea refers to a slow respiratory rate.
2. A nurse is caring for a client who is at risk for aspiration. Which of the following actions is
the priority?
A. Keep the head of the bed elevated to 90 degrees during meals.
B. Provide the client with a straw.
C. Offer the client thin liquids.
D. Instruct the client to tilt their head back while swallowing.
Rationale: High-Fowler's position (90 degrees) is the most effective way to use gravity
to prevent aspiration. Straws and thin liquids increase risk, and the head should be
tilted forward (chin-tuck), not back.
,3. A nurse is preparing to administer a medication. The label reads 250 mg, and the
provider’s order is for 0.5 g. How many tablets should the nurse administer?
A. 1 tablet
B. 2 tablets
C. 0.5 tablet
D. 4 tablets
Rationale: 0.5 g is equal to 500 mg. Since each tablet is 250 mg, 500 divided by 250
equals 2 tablets.
4. A nurse is performing a physical assessment. Which of the following findings is an
indication of a stage 1 pressure injury?
A. Blistering of the skin.
B. Visible bone or tendon.
C. Non-blanchable erythema of intact skin.
D. Partial-thickness skin loss.
Rationale: A stage 1 injury is characterized by redness that does not turn white
(blanch) when pressed, but the skin remains intact.
5. A nurse is teaching a client about a low-fiber diet. Which of the following foods should
the nurse recommend?
A. Whole-grain bread
B. Raw broccoli
C. White rice
D. Fresh apples with skin
Rationale: White rice is a refined grain that is low in fiber (residue), making it
appropriate for a low-fiber diet used to rest the bowel.
6. A nurse is caring for a client who is post-operative. Which of the following is the priority
intervention to prevent respiratory complications?
A. Administering pain medication.
B. Encouraging the use of an incentive spirometer every hour.
C. Monitoring intake and output.
D. Changing the surgical dressing.
Rationale: Incentive spirometry promotes alveolar expansion and prevents atelectasis,
which is the most common early post-operative complication.
7. A nurse is preparing to insert a urinary catheter. Which of the following actions is
required to maintain sterile technique?
A. Wear clean gloves while cleaning the labia.
B. Open the sterile kit away from the body.
, C. Touch the 1-inch border of the sterile field with sterile gloves.
D. Clean the insertion site from the bottom to the top.
Rationale: Opening the first flap of a sterile kit away from the body prevents the nurse
from reaching over the sterile field later. The 1-inch border is considered
contaminated.
8. A nurse is assessing a client for dehydration. Which of the following findings should the
nurse expect?
A. Distended neck veins.
B. Hypertension.
C. Dark yellow, concentrated urine.
D. Bradycardia.
Rationale: When fluid volume is low, the kidneys conserve water, resulting in highly
concentrated urine with a high specific gravity.
9. A nurse is reviewing a client's lab results. Which of the following values is within the
normal range for serum sodium?
A. 125 mEq/L
B. 140 mEq/L
C. 150 mEq/L
D. 130 mEq/L
Rationale: The normal range for serum sodium is 135 to 145 mEq/L. Values below 135
indicate hyponatremia; above 145 indicate hypernatremia.
10. A nurse is caring for a client who has a suspected C. diff infection. Which of the following
actions should the nurse take?
A. Use an alcohol-based hand rub after care.
B. Wash hands with soap and water after care.
C. Place the client in a negative-pressure room.
D. Wear a surgical mask when entering the room.
Rationale: Alcohol does not kill C. diff spores; physical scrubbing with soap and water is
required to mechanically remove them from the skin.
11. A nurse is preparing to administer an IM injection into the ventrogluteal site. Which of
the following is a landmark for this site?
A. The greater trochanter.
B. The acromion process.
C. The patella.
D. The iliac crest.
, Rationale: The nurse places the palm on the greater trochanter and the index finger on
the anterior superior iliac spine to locate the ventrogluteal muscle.
12. A nurse is documenting a client’s refusal of a medication. Which of the following is the
correct nursing action?
A. Hide the medication in the client’s food.
B. Tell the client they cannot refuse.
C. Document the refusal and notify the provider.
D. Leave the medication at the bedside in case they change their mind.
Rationale: Clients have the right to refuse treatment. The nurse must respect this,
document it, and inform the provider of the potential impact on the treatment plan.
13. A nurse is caring for a client with a hearing impairment. Which of the following actions
should the nurse take?
A. Shout at the client.
B. Face the client while speaking.
C. Speak directly into the client's "good" ear.
D. Exaggerate lip movements.
Rationale: Facing the client allows them to use visual cues and lip-reading to
supplement what they hear. Shouting can distort sound and seems aggressive.
14. A nurse is teaching a client how to use a cane. When walking, where should the cane be
placed?
A. 6 to 10 inches in front of the feet.
B. 2 feet in front of the feet.
C. Directly next to the weak foot.
D. Behind the body for stability.
Rationale: Moving the cane 6 to 10 inches forward provides a stable base of support
before the client steps forward.
15. A nurse is preparing to administer a sublingual medication. Where should the
medication be placed?
A. Between the cheek and the gum.
B. Under the tongue.
C. On top of the tongue.
D. In the back of the throat.
Rationale: Sublingual means "under the tongue," where the medication is rapidly
absorbed through the highly vascular mucous membrane.
