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NSG554/ NSG 554 Exam 1 (Latest 2026/2027 Update) | Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I | Infectious Disease, Emergency Management, Immunizations, Travel Medicine, Dermatologic Conditions, Respiratory Infections | Complete Q&A with Verified Answers and D

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD — This comprehensive EXAM resource for the NSG 554 Exam 1 at Wilkes University covers Nurse Practitioners in Primary Care I for the 2026/2027 academic year. It features exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales based on actual NSG 554 Exam 1 content. Topics include infectious disease epidemiology, influenza management, Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever, vaccine schedules (COVID-19, influenza, RSV, Tdap, shingles, HPV), active vs passive immunity, TB testing (IGRA vs TST), emergency conditions (syncope, heat stroke, chemical exposure, electrical injury), infectious diarrhea (Norovirus, Rotavirus, E. coli, C. diff), orthostatic hypotension, anaphylaxis, antidotes (N-acetylcysteine, flumazenil, naloxone), and NP responsibilities in sexual assault cases . NSG 554 EXAM 1 – COMPLETE Q&A REVIEW INFECTIOUS DISEASE & IMMUNIZATIONS Q1. Active Immunity Correct Answer: Results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Active immunity can be acquired through natural immunity or vaccine-induced immunity . Rationale: Active immunity is long-lasting, sometimes lifelong. It differs from passive immunity which provides immediate but temporary protection . Q2. Natural Immunity Correct Answer: Acquired from exposure to the disease organism through infection with the actual disease . Rationale: Natural immunity occurs when a person contracts and recovers from an infectious illness, developing antibodies that provide future protection. Q3. Passive Immunity Correct Answer: Provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through their own immune system. Example: babies acquire passive immunity from their mothers during pregnancy . Rationale: The major advantage of passive immunity is immediate protection. However, it lasts only a few weeks or months, whereas active immunity is long-lasting . Q4. COVID-19 Vaccine Recommendation Correct Answer: At least one dose of the updated vaccine for ALL ADULTS aged 19-65+ . Rationale: Staying current with COVID-19 vaccination is recommended for all adults as part of routine primary care. Q5. Influenza Vaccine Recommendation Correct Answer: EVERY YEAR for ALL ADULTS aged 19-65+ . Rationale: Annual flu vaccination is recommended due to changing circulating strains and waning immunity. Q6. RSV Vaccine Recommendation Correct Answer: Ages 19-49 if pregnant during RSV season; ages 60+ should talk to their healthcare provider . Rationale: RSV vaccination is indicated for pregnant women to protect infants and for older adults at increased risk of severe RSV disease. Q7. Tdap Vaccine Recommendation Correct Answer: Every 10 years for adults; during EVERY pregnancy . Rationale: Tdap provides protection against tetanus, diphtheria, and pertussis. Vaccination during pregnancy passes antibodies to the newborn. Q8. Shingles (Herpes Zoster) Vaccine Recommendation Correct Answer: Ages 50-65+ ALL ADULTS; ages 19-49 some adults . Rationale: Recombinant zoster vaccine (Shingrix) is recommended for immunocompetent adults aged 50 years and older . Q9. HPV Vaccine Recommendation Correct Answer: Routine vaccination at ages 11-12 (can start at age 9). 2-dose IM series: first dose, second dose 6-12 months later . Rationale: HPV vaccine is also recommended through age 26 for those not previously vaccinated; shared decision-making for ages 27-45.

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2024 NSG 554 Exam 1: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Advanced Practice Infectious
Disease, Emergency Medicine & Pharmacology | Q&A | Grade A | 100%
Correct (Verified Answers)

Subject: Advanced Practice Nursing / Infectious Disease & Emergency Care
Source: NSG 554 Exam 1 – Comprehensive Review
Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale


1: The most common cause of syncope is...
Correct Answer: Vasovagal syncope (neurally mediated).

1. Vasovagal syncope is triggered by emotional stress, pain, prolonged standing.
2. Results from inappropriate reflex response causing bradycardia and vasodilation.
3. Typically preceded by prodromal symptoms (nausea, sweating, lightheadedness).

2: What is angioedema?
Correct Answer: Localized areas of painless swelling beneath the skin, often around the eyes and lips,
but it can also involve other body areas as well. Often triggered by an allergic reaction.

1. Can involve airway (laryngeal edema) requiring emergency management.
2. Distinguish from urticaria: swelling is deeper, not pruritic.
3. Causes: ACE inhibitors, allergies, hereditary angioedema.

3: Treatment for EBV
Correct Answer: Rest and symptomatic therapy. OTC medications for pain/fever, increase fluid intake.

1. No antiviral indicated for uncomplicated infectious mononucleosis.
2. Avoid contact sports for 4-6 weeks due to splenomegaly risk.
3. Corticosteroids for impending airway obstruction or severe complications.

4: This immunoglobin is responsible for allergen development
Correct Answer: IgE (Immunoglobulin E).

1. IgE binds to mast cells and basophils, triggering histamine release.
2. Elevated in atopic conditions (asthma, allergic rhinitis, eczema).
3. Involved in Type I hypersensitivity reactions.

5: Signs and Symptoms of acute bronchospasm
Correct Answer: Spasmodic cough, wheezing, shortness of breath (SOB).

1. Expiratory wheezing is characteristic of bronchospasm.
2. May progress to use of accessory muscles, tachypnea, hypoxia.
3. Silent chest is ominous sign of severe obstruction.

, 6: Three options for emergency contraception
Correct Answer: Plan B (levonorgestrel), Ulipristal acetate (Ella), IUD (copper or hormonal).

1. Levonorgestrel effective up to 72 hours post-intercourse.
2. Ulipristal acetate effective up to 120 hours; requires prescription.
3. Copper IUD most effective (99%) up to 5 days post-intercourse.

7: What diabetic meds increase weight gain?
Correct Answer: Insulin, Thiazolidinediones (Rosiglitazone & Pioglitazone).

1. Insulin promotes adipogenesis and weight gain.
2. Thiazolidinediones cause fluid retention and increased adiposity.
3. Metformin, SGLT2 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists promote weight loss or neutral.

8: Causes of syncope
Correct Answer: Neurally mediated (most common), orthostatic hypotension, cardiac (most severe).

1. Neurally mediated: vasovagal, situational, carotid sinus hypersensitivity.
2. Orthostatic: volume depletion, autonomic dysfunction, medications.
3. Cardiac: arrhythmias, structural heart disease (most lethal if missed).

9: This scale is used to measure severity of damage from head trauma and scores these three
categories
Correct Answer: Glasgow Coma Scale (highest score is 15). Categories: Eye Opening, Best Motor
Response, Best Verbal Response.

1. GCS 13-15 mild, 9-12 moderate, 3-8 severe TBI.
2. Motor response most predictive of outcome.
3. Intubation indicated for GCS ≤8.

10: What med classes are associated with weight gain?
Correct Answer: Diabetic meds, antidepressants, neuroleptics, seizure meds, antihistamines, hormonal
preparations, and cardiac meds (beta-blockers & antiarrhythmics).

1. Antidepressants: SSRIs, TCAs, MAOIs cause weight gain (especially paroxetine).
2. Neuroleptics: clozapine, olanzapine cause most significant weight gain.
3. Beta-blockers: older agents (propranolol) cause more weight gain than cardioselective.

11: Tests to order for cases of presyncope/syncope episodes
Correct Answer: CT Scan/MRI, EKG, Labs: CBC, Lytes, glucose, Mg, BUN/Cr, UA, ABGs, Coag
Panel, Drug screen.

1. EKG to rule out arrhythmias (prolonged QT, heart block).
2. Cardiac monitoring if suspected arrhythmia.
3. Orthostatic vital signs to assess for postural hypotension.

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