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NURS 180 | Pharmacology | Week 11 Final Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU

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NURS 180 | Pharmacology | Week 11 Final Comprehensive Quiz 2026 |WCU

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NURS 180 | Pharmacology | Week 11 Final Comprehensive Quiz 2026
|WCU


1. A patient is prescribed Lithium Carbonate for Bipolar Disorder. The nurse
notes the lithium level is 1.8 mEq/L. Which action is the priority?

A. Administer the next scheduled dose as it is within therapeutic range.

B. Request a repeat lab draw in 24 hours.

C. Hold the dose and notify the provider immediately.

D. Encourage the patient to increase sodium intake to flush the drug.

Answer: C
Rationale: The therapeutic range for lithium is 0.6 to 1.2 mEq/L. A level of 1.8 mEq/L
indicates toxicity, necessitating holding the drug and notifying the provider.

2. Which adverse effect should the nurse monitor most closely in a patient
starting Clozapine?

A. Agranulocytosis

B. Extrapyramidal symptoms (EPS)

C. Hyperprolactinemia

D. Photosensitivity

Answer: A
Rationale: Clozapine carries a black box warning for agranulocytosis, a severe reduction in
white blood cell count, requiring weekly CBC monitoring.

,3. A patient taking Phenelzine (an MAOI) should be instructed to avoid which
food to prevent hypertensive crisis?

A. Cottage cheese

B. Whole grain bread

C. Fresh strawberries

D. Aged cheddar cheese

Answer: D
Rationale: MAOIs interact with tyramine-rich foods (like aged cheeses, cured meats, and
red wine), which can lead to a massive release of norepinephrine and hypertensive crisis.

4. What is the mechanism of action for Selective Serotonin Reuptake Inhibitors
(SSRIs)?

A. Increasing the destruction of serotonin in the synaptic cleft.

B. Blocking the reabsorption of serotonin into the presynaptic neuron.

C. Directly stimulating post-synaptic serotonin receptors.

D. Decreasing the production of serotonin in the brainstem.

Answer: B
Rationale: SSRIs inhibit the reuptake of serotonin, thereby increasing the amount of
serotonin available in the synaptic cleft to bind to post-synaptic receptors.

5. A patient is experiencing ‘Red Man Syndrome’ during a Vancomycin infusion.
What is the most appropriate nursing intervention?

A. Stop the infusion and prepare to administer epinephrine.

B. Increase the infusion rate to finish the dose faster.

C. Discontinue the drug and document a penicillin allergy.

D. Slow the infusion rate and notify the provider.

Answer: D

, Rationale: Red Man Syndrome is a rate-related reaction, not a true allergy. Slowing the
infusion rate (usually over 60-120 minutes) typically resolves the flushing and
hypotension.

6. A patient with Type 1 Diabetes is prescribed Insulin Glargine. When should
the nurse expect this insulin to peak?

A. 1 to 2 hours after administration

B. 4 to 12 hours after administration

C. 24 hours after administration

D. There is no peak for this insulin.

Answer: D
Rationale: Insulin Glargine is a long-acting insulin with a steady release over 24 hours and
no significant peak, reducing the risk of hypoglycemia.

7. Which medication is considered the gold standard for treating acute status
epilepticus?

A. Valproic Acid

B. Gabapentin

C. Lorazepam

D. Ethosuximide

Answer: C
Rationale: Benzodiazepines like Lorazepam or Diazepam are first-line for terminating
active, prolonged seizures due to their rapid onset.

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