Latest Online ATI PN Comprehensive
Predictor 2026 Exit Exam Level 3 Forms A, B
& C with NGN 180 Questions to Excel in
Actual 2026 PN ATI Comprehensive
Predictor Exit Exam
Exam
Exam Sections & Key Topics
Section Focus Area Question #
1 Management of Care (Delegation, Assignment, Ethics) 1–15
2 Safety & Infection Control 16–25
3 Pharmacology & Parenteral Therapies 26–50
4 Prioritization & Clinical Judgment (ABCs/Maslow) 51–65
5 Reduction of Risk Potential (Lab Values/Diagnostics) 66–80
6 Physiological Adaptation (Medical-Surgical) 81–95
7 Maternal-Newborn & Pediatrics 96–100
, Section 1: Management of Care (Delegation, Assignment, Ethics)
1. A charge nurse is delegating tasks to a Licensed Practical Nurse
(LPN). Which task is appropriate to delegate?
A. Initial admission assessment of a new client.
B. Administering IV push morphine sulfate.
C. Monitoring a client's nasogastric (NG) tube for placement and
output.
D. Teaching a client how to self-administer insulin.
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs can monitor stable clients, collect data (like NG
output), and perform standard procedures. Initial assessments (A), IV
push meds (B), and discharge/patient teaching (D) are the responsibility
of the RN .
2. An RN is making assignments for an LPN. Which client should the
LPN question being assigned to?
A. A client with stable CHF receiving daily furosemide.
B. A client needing a clean-catch urine specimen.
C. A client requiring nasopharyngeal suctioning for pneumonia.
D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump.
Rationale: Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA) pumps involve complex
medication programming and assessment that fall outside the LPN's
scope of practice in most states; this is an RN responsibility. The other
options are within LPN competencies for stable patients .
3. A nurse observes a colleague administering a high-alert medication
without a second nurse verification. What is the first action?
A. Report the nurse to the state board immediately.
B. Speak directly to the nurse about the safety violation.
,C. Ignore the incident if no harm occurred.
D. Complete an incident report anonymously.
Rationale: The chain of command dictates that the first step in
addressing a colleague's error is to speak directly and privately to
correct the behavior immediately. If the behavior persists, then
reporting to the charge nurse is necessary .
4. A client with a terminal illness tells the nurse, "I am ready to stop
all treatments and go home." What is the best therapeutic response?
A. "You need to discuss this with your family first."
B. "Let's wait until your doctor comes in tomorrow."
C. "Tell me more about your decision to stop treatment."
D. "You will need a psychiatric consult for that decision."
Rationale: This is an open-ended, nonjudgmental response that
respects client autonomy and encourages therapeutic communication,
allowing the nurse to explore the client’s feelings and values .
5. A client refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs
(Jehovah's Witness). What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Explain the risks of refusal and document the conversation.
B. Administer the blood in an emergency anyway.
C. Respect the refusal and notify the provider for alternatives.
D. Ask the family to override the client's decision.
Rationale: A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to refuse
treatment, even if that decision is life-threatening. The nurse must
respect autonomy, document the refusal, and explore alternative
treatments (e.g., iron, erythropoietin) with the provider .
6. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about advance directives. Which
statement indicates client understanding?
A. "Advance directives are only for older adults."
, B. "I can change my advance directives at any time."
C. "Once signed, advance directives cannot be changed."
D. "A lawyer must create my advance directives."
Rationale: Advance directives are legal documents that any competent
adult can complete. They can be modified or revoked at any time by the
client and do not require a lawyer .
7. A nurse notices a small fire in a client's trash can. What action
should the nurse take first?
A. Activate the fire alarm.
B. Use the fire extinguisher.
C. Close the room door.
D. Rescue the client from the room.
Rationale: The mnemonic R.A.C.E. guides fire response: Rescue (move
client to safety), Alarm, Contain (close doors/windows), Extinguish .
8. Which client can be assigned to an LPN under RN supervision?
A. Client newly diagnosed with unstable angina on a titratable heparin
drip.
B. Client with stable congestive heart failure receiving daily
furosemide.
C. Client requiring blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia.
D. Client with chest tube and continuous bubbling in the water seal
chamber.
Rationale: A stable client with CHF receiving routine medication
(furosemide) is within the LPN's scope. Titratable drips, blood
transfusions, and chest tube troubleshooting are higher-acuity tasks
requiring RN assessment and intervention .
9. A nurse is reviewing HIPAA compliance. Which action violates client
privacy?
Predictor 2026 Exit Exam Level 3 Forms A, B
& C with NGN 180 Questions to Excel in
Actual 2026 PN ATI Comprehensive
Predictor Exit Exam
Exam
Exam Sections & Key Topics
Section Focus Area Question #
1 Management of Care (Delegation, Assignment, Ethics) 1–15
2 Safety & Infection Control 16–25
3 Pharmacology & Parenteral Therapies 26–50
4 Prioritization & Clinical Judgment (ABCs/Maslow) 51–65
5 Reduction of Risk Potential (Lab Values/Diagnostics) 66–80
6 Physiological Adaptation (Medical-Surgical) 81–95
7 Maternal-Newborn & Pediatrics 96–100
, Section 1: Management of Care (Delegation, Assignment, Ethics)
1. A charge nurse is delegating tasks to a Licensed Practical Nurse
(LPN). Which task is appropriate to delegate?
A. Initial admission assessment of a new client.
B. Administering IV push morphine sulfate.
C. Monitoring a client's nasogastric (NG) tube for placement and
output.
D. Teaching a client how to self-administer insulin.
Rationale: LPNs/LVNs can monitor stable clients, collect data (like NG
output), and perform standard procedures. Initial assessments (A), IV
push meds (B), and discharge/patient teaching (D) are the responsibility
of the RN .
2. An RN is making assignments for an LPN. Which client should the
LPN question being assigned to?
A. A client with stable CHF receiving daily furosemide.
B. A client needing a clean-catch urine specimen.
C. A client requiring nasopharyngeal suctioning for pneumonia.
D. Replacing the cartridge and tubing on a PCA pump.
Rationale: Patient-Controlled Analgesia (PCA) pumps involve complex
medication programming and assessment that fall outside the LPN's
scope of practice in most states; this is an RN responsibility. The other
options are within LPN competencies for stable patients .
3. A nurse observes a colleague administering a high-alert medication
without a second nurse verification. What is the first action?
A. Report the nurse to the state board immediately.
B. Speak directly to the nurse about the safety violation.
,C. Ignore the incident if no harm occurred.
D. Complete an incident report anonymously.
Rationale: The chain of command dictates that the first step in
addressing a colleague's error is to speak directly and privately to
correct the behavior immediately. If the behavior persists, then
reporting to the charge nurse is necessary .
4. A client with a terminal illness tells the nurse, "I am ready to stop
all treatments and go home." What is the best therapeutic response?
A. "You need to discuss this with your family first."
B. "Let's wait until your doctor comes in tomorrow."
C. "Tell me more about your decision to stop treatment."
D. "You will need a psychiatric consult for that decision."
Rationale: This is an open-ended, nonjudgmental response that
respects client autonomy and encourages therapeutic communication,
allowing the nurse to explore the client’s feelings and values .
5. A client refuses a blood transfusion due to religious beliefs
(Jehovah's Witness). What is the nurse's priority action?
A. Explain the risks of refusal and document the conversation.
B. Administer the blood in an emergency anyway.
C. Respect the refusal and notify the provider for alternatives.
D. Ask the family to override the client's decision.
Rationale: A competent adult has the legal and ethical right to refuse
treatment, even if that decision is life-threatening. The nurse must
respect autonomy, document the refusal, and explore alternative
treatments (e.g., iron, erythropoietin) with the provider .
6. A nurse is reinforcing teaching about advance directives. Which
statement indicates client understanding?
A. "Advance directives are only for older adults."
, B. "I can change my advance directives at any time."
C. "Once signed, advance directives cannot be changed."
D. "A lawyer must create my advance directives."
Rationale: Advance directives are legal documents that any competent
adult can complete. They can be modified or revoked at any time by the
client and do not require a lawyer .
7. A nurse notices a small fire in a client's trash can. What action
should the nurse take first?
A. Activate the fire alarm.
B. Use the fire extinguisher.
C. Close the room door.
D. Rescue the client from the room.
Rationale: The mnemonic R.A.C.E. guides fire response: Rescue (move
client to safety), Alarm, Contain (close doors/windows), Extinguish .
8. Which client can be assigned to an LPN under RN supervision?
A. Client newly diagnosed with unstable angina on a titratable heparin
drip.
B. Client with stable congestive heart failure receiving daily
furosemide.
C. Client requiring blood transfusion for symptomatic anemia.
D. Client with chest tube and continuous bubbling in the water seal
chamber.
Rationale: A stable client with CHF receiving routine medication
(furosemide) is within the LPN's scope. Titratable drips, blood
transfusions, and chest tube troubleshooting are higher-acuity tasks
requiring RN assessment and intervention .
9. A nurse is reviewing HIPAA compliance. Which action violates client
privacy?
