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NURS 5432 PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE MIDTERM 2026/2027 | Modules 1-4 & Case Studies | Complete Solutions | UTA | Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded

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Pass the NURS 5432 Pediatric Primary Care Midterm Exam on your first attempt with this complete 2026/2027 solutions guide covering Modules 1-4 and Case Studies for the University of Texas at Arlington. This A+ Graded resource contains comprehensive midterm exam solutions and verified answers covering all key content areas from Modules 1-4 including principles of pediatric primary care and child health promotion, developmental surveillance and screening tools (Ages and Stages Questionnaire ASQ, Denver II, M-CHAT), Bright Futures preventive care guidelines and recommended well-child visit schedules, pediatric health history taking and communication strategies for children and families, growth assessment and measurement (weight, length/height, head circumference, BMI percentiles, growth chart interpretation), vital signs by age (heart rate, respiratory rate, blood pressure, temperature), pediatric physical examination techniques (sequence, approaches by age, anticipatory guidance), newborn assessment (Apgar scoring, gestational age assessment Ballard, newborn screening tests, metabolic panels, hearing screening, hyperbilirubinemia management, circumcision care, newborn discharge instructions), infant nutrition (breastfeeding, formula feeding, introduction of solids, vitamin D/iron supplementation, feeding problems), immunization schedules and vaccine counseling (ACIP recommendations, catch-up vaccination, vaccine safety, contraindications), toddler development (autonomy, negativism, tantrums, toilet training, sleep issues, injury prevention, lead poisoning screening), preschool development (language explosion, imaginary play, gender identity, enuresis, encopresis, dental health screening), school-age development (industry vs inferiority, bullying, school refusal, learning disorders, ADHD evaluation and management), adolescent development (pubertal staging Tanner, confidentiality issues, HEEADSSS psychosocial assessment, risk behaviors, eating disorders, substance use screening, depression and suicide screening PHQ-9, menstrual health), common pediatric acute illnesses (otitis media, pharyngitis, sinusitis, URI, croup, bronchiolitis, pneumonia, gastroenteritis, UTI, skin infections impetigo/cellulitis/abscess, conjunctivitis, hand-foot-mouth disease, roseola, fifth disease, mononucleosis, influenza, COVID-19 management in children), common pediatric chronic conditions (asthma, allergic rhinitis, atopic dermatitis, constipation, GERD, enuresis, obesity management, type 1 and type 2 diabetes mellitus, seizure disorders, cerebral palsy, ADHD medication management), pediatric medication prescribing and dosing by weight (safe medication administration, common medication classes, antibiotic stewardship), pediatric red flags and emergency referrals, child maltreatment recognition and mandatory reporting (physical abuse, sexual abuse, neglect, failure to thrive, abusive head trauma), pediatric case study analysis and clinical reasoning, family-centered care approaches, cultural considerations in pediatric primary care, special healthcare needs children (technology-dependent, developmental disabilities), and transition to adult care planning. Each answer includes complete solutions to reinforce pediatric primary care knowledge and clinical decision-making. Perfect for pediatric nurse practitioner (PNP) and family nurse practitioner (FNP) students at UTA preparing for the NURS 5432 midterm exam. With our Pass Guarantee, you can confidently prepare for your Pediatric Primary Care Midterm. Download your complete NURS 5432 Pediatric Primary Care Midterm modules 1-4 and case studies solutions instantly!

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NURS 5432 PEDIATRIC PRIMARY CARE MIDTERM 2026/2027
| Modules 1-4 & Case Studies | Complete Solutions | UTA |
Pass Guaranteed - A+ Graded



SECTION 1: MODULE 1 - PEDIATRIC GROWTH & DEVELOPMENT
MILESTONES (QUESTIONS 1-25)


Q1. A mother brings her 4-month-old infant for a well-child visit. According to the Denver
II Developmental Screening Test, which of the following represents a developmental red
flag at this age?

A. Not yet rolling from back to front
B. Not yet reaching for objects
C. Not yet smiling responsively
D. Not yet sitting without support

Rationale: Not smiling responsively by 3 months is a significant red flag for
social-emotional development and may indicate autism spectrum disorder or other
developmental concerns. Rolling typically occurs by 4-5 months, reaching by 4 months,
and sitting without support by 6 months. Correct Answer: C



Q2. During a 9-month well-child visit, which fine motor milestone would the nurse
practitioner expect to observe?

A. Building a tower of two cubes
B. Using a pincer grasp to pick up a Cheerio
C. Scribbling with a crayon

,D. Drawing a circle

Rationale: The pincer grasp (thumb and forefinger) typically develops around 9-10
months. Building a two-cube tower occurs at 15 months, scribbling at 12-15 months,
and drawing a circle at approximately 3 years. Correct Answer: B



Q3. A 15-month-old child is seen for a routine visit. The parent reports the child says
"mama" and "dada" specifically but has no other words. The child follows simple
commands, points to desired objects, and uses gestures. Based on language
development norms, the NP should:

A. Refer immediately for speech-language evaluation
B. Reassure the parent and continue routine surveillance
C. Order formal hearing testing
D. Initiate early intervention services

Rationale: By 15 months, children typically have 3-5 words. However, using "mama" and
"dada" specifically, following commands, pointing, and using gestures are all appropriate
communication skills. This pattern warrants continued surveillance rather than
immediate referral, though vocabulary should be monitored closely at the 18-month
visit. Correct Answer: B



Q4. Which of the following gross motor milestones is MOST developmentally
concerning if NOT achieved by 12 months of age?

A. Pulling to stand
B. Cruising along furniture
C. Independent walking
D. Sitting without support

,Rationale: Sitting without support is a critical milestone that should be achieved by 8-9
months. Failure to sit independently by 12 months is a significant red flag for gross
motor delay and requires immediate evaluation for conditions such as cerebral palsy,
hypotonia, or neuromuscular disorders. Correct Answer: D



Q5. A nurse practitioner is administering the M-CHAT-R/F to an 18-month-old during a
well-child visit. Which of the following responses would be considered a PASS (typical)
response?

A. The child does not look at the examiner's face when his or her name is called
B. The child points to indicate interest in something across the room
C. The child does not bring objects to show the parent
D. The child does not imitate activities during play

Rationale: Pointing to indicate interest (protodeclarative pointing) is a key
social-communication milestone that typically emerges by 12-14 months and is a PASS
response on the M-CHAT-R/F. The other options are all FAIL responses indicating
potential autism spectrum risk. Correct Answer: B



Q6. According to Piaget's theory of cognitive development, a 7-year-old child who
understands that the amount of water remains the same when poured into a taller,
narrower glass is demonstrating which stage?

A. Sensorimotor stage
B. Preoperational stage
C. Concrete operational stage
D. Formal operational stage

Rationale: The concrete operational stage (ages 7-11 years) is characterized by
conservation—the understanding that quantity remains constant despite changes in

, appearance. The preoperational child (ages 2-7) would be unable to demonstrate
conservation. Correct Answer: C



Q7. A 3-year-old child is playing alongside another child at the park, occasionally looking
at what the other child is doing but not interacting directly. According to Parten's stages
of play, this represents:

A. Solitary play
B. Parallel play
C. Associative play
D. Cooperative play

Rationale: Parallel play (ages 2-3 years) involves playing near other children with similar
toys but without direct interaction. Solitary play involves playing alone, associative play
(ages 3-4) involves some interaction without organized goals, and cooperative play
(ages 4+) involves organized group play with shared goals. Correct Answer: B



Q8. During a 6-month well-child visit, the parent reports the infant has not yet developed
stranger anxiety. The NP should recognize that:

A. This is always abnormal and requires immediate referral
B. Stranger anxiety typically develops between 6-9 months and may not yet be present
C. The infant likely has an attachment disorder
D. This indicates the infant has a secure attachment

Rationale: Stranger anxiety typically develops between 6-9 months as part of normal
cognitive and social-emotional development. Absence at 6 months is still within normal
limits. However, if it has not developed by 9-12 months, further evaluation may be
warranted. Correct Answer: B

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