NSG 530 Exam 3: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Renal, Reproductive, GI, &
Hepatic Disorders | Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Answers) –
Nursing Program
Subject: NSG 530 – Advanced Pathophysiology Source: NSG 530 Exam 3 Blueprint 2026/2027
Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale | Verified Grade A
1. What is pyelonephritis?
Correct Answer: Inflammation of the renal pelvis and the kidney (upper urinary tract infection)
1. Acute pyelonephritis: fever, flank pain, CVA tenderness, nausea, WBC casts.
2. Chronic pyelonephritis: interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy from repeated bouts, chronic UTI, VUR, or stones.
3. Treatment: antibiotics (fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins), hydration, and addressing underlying cause.
2. What is cystitis and what are its common pathogens?
Correct Answer: Inflammation of the bladder; common pathogens: E. coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus
1. Cystitis symptoms: frequency, urgency, dysuria, suprapubic pain (no systemic signs like fever).
2. E. coli accounts for 75-95% of uncomplicated UTIs; S. saprophyticus in young sexually active women.
3. Diagnosis: urinalysis (WBCs, nitrites, leukocyte esterase), urine culture.
3. What is renal cell carcinoma?
Correct Answer: Cancerous tumor that arises from kidney tubule cells (most common primary renal malignancy)
1. Classic triad: hematuria, flank pain, palpable mass (only 10% have all three).
2. Paraneoplastic syndromes: hypercalcemia, polycythemia, hypertension (renin).p>3. Treatment: partial or radical
nephrectomy; targeted therapy (sunitinib, pazopanib) for metastatic disease.
4. What is transitional cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis?
Correct Answer: Malignant tumor of the urinary tract (often in bladder or renal pelvis); occurs in older men; gross
painless hematuria is hallmark.
1. Urothelial carcinoma; risk factors: smoking, aniline dyes, analgesic abuse, cyclophosphamide.
2. Diagnosis: cystoscopy and biopsy, upper tract imaging (CT urogram).p>3. Treatment: radical nephroureterectomy
with bladder cuff.
5. What is glomerulonephritis and its symptoms?
Correct Answer: Inflammation of glomeruli; symptoms: hematuria with RBC casts, proteinuria (albumin), oliguria,
hypertension, edema, nephrotic sediment.
1. Primary GN: post-streptococcal, IgA nephropathy. Secondary GN: SLE, diabetes, vasculitis.
2. Nephritic syndrome presentation: hematuria, HTN, oliguria, mild proteinuria.
3. Diagnosis: low C3/C4, elevated anti-DNase B, renal biopsy.
6. What is nephrotic syndrome and what causes it?
Correct Answer: Loss of large amounts of plasma protein (albumin) in urine due to increased glomerular
membrane permeability. Causes: membranous GN, minimal change disease, FSGS, diabetes, lupus.
1. Nephrotic syndrome triad: proteinuria (>3.5 g/24h), hypoalbuminemia (<3 g/dL), edema.
2. Other features: hyperlipidemia, lipiduria (oval fat bodies, fatty casts).p>3. Minimal change disease most common in
children; responds to steroids.
, 7. What is hypospadias and epispadias?
Correct Answer: Hypospadias: urethral opening on undersurface of penis. Epispadias: urethral opening on superior
surface of penis. Both congenital.
1. Hypospadias often with chordee (downward curvature); surgery before age 18 months.
2. Epispadias associated with bladder exstrophy; more severe defects.
3. Corrective surgery preserves normal urinary and reproductive function.
8. What is Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)?
Correct Answer: Rapidly developing malignancy of kidneys affecting children before age 5; normally found by
parents due to abdominal swelling.
1. Most common renal malignancy in children; associated with WT1 mutations.
2. Usually unilateral; palpable flank mass, possible hematuria, hypertension.
3. Treatment: nephrectomy + chemotherapy (vincristine, dactinomycin). Excellent prognosis (>90% survival).
9. What are the diagnostic criteria for PCOS (polycystic ovarian syndrome)?
Correct Answer: Two of three: irregular ovulation, elevated androgens, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
1. Rotterdam criteria (2003): required two of three features; exclude other causes.
2. PCOS is most common endocrine disorder in reproductive-age women; high LH/FSH ratio.
3. Associated with insulin resistance, obesity, dyslipidemia, increased cardiovascular risk.
10. What is chlamydia and its symptoms?
Correct Answer: Bacterial infection (Chlamydia trachomatis) affecting reproductive organs; can cause ectopic
pregnancy. Symptoms: urethritis, penile/vaginal discharge, abdominal/rectal/testicular pain, dyspareunia, irregular
menses.
1. Most common reportable STD in US; often asymptomatic (75% women, 50% men).
2. Untreated → pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) → tubal scarring → infertility, ectopic pregnancy.p>3. Treatment:
azithromycin or doxycycline; test-of-cure in pregnancy.
11. What are the four stages of syphilis?
Correct Answer: Primary (chancre), secondary (rash on palms/soles, fever, lymphadenopathy), latent
(asymptomatic), tertiary (gummas, neurosyphilis, cardiovascular)
1. Caused by Treponema pallidum; diagnosis by serology (RPR, VDRL, FTA-ABS).
2. Primary chancre heals spontaneously in 3-6 weeks, but infection persists.p>3. Penicillin G is treatment; Jarisch-
Herxheimer reaction may occur.
12. What is gonorrhea and its symptoms?
Correct Answer: Infection of mucus membranes (cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, urethra). Symptoms: discharge,
dysuria, unusual sores, or rash.
1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae; often co-infection with chlamydia (treat both).
2. Can cause PID, epididymitis, disseminated infection (arthritis, dermatitis).p>3. Treatment: dual therapy (ceftriaxone +
azithromycin).
13. What is trichomoniasis and its symptoms?
Correct Answer: STD caused by protozoan (Trichomonas vaginalis). Symptoms: itching, burning, redness, dysuria,
clear/white/yellow/green discharge with fishy smell.
1. Motile trichomonads seen on wet mount (saline microscopy).
2. Treatment: metronidazole or tinidazole for both partners.p>3. Associated with pregnancy complications (preterm
delivery, low birth weight).
14. What is bacterial vaginosis?
Correct Answer: Overgrowth of bacteria in vagina; characterized by itching, burning, pain, and "fishy" smelling
discharge.
1. Amsel criteria: clue cells on wet mount, pH >4.5, positive whiff test (fishy with KOH), thin gray discharge.p>2. Not an
STD but associated with sexual activity.3. Treatment: metronidazole (oral or vaginal), clindamycin.
Hepatic Disorders | Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Answers) –
Nursing Program
Subject: NSG 530 – Advanced Pathophysiology Source: NSG 530 Exam 3 Blueprint 2026/2027
Format: Q&A Guide with Rationale | Verified Grade A
1. What is pyelonephritis?
Correct Answer: Inflammation of the renal pelvis and the kidney (upper urinary tract infection)
1. Acute pyelonephritis: fever, flank pain, CVA tenderness, nausea, WBC casts.
2. Chronic pyelonephritis: interstitial fibrosis, tubular atrophy from repeated bouts, chronic UTI, VUR, or stones.
3. Treatment: antibiotics (fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins), hydration, and addressing underlying cause.
2. What is cystitis and what are its common pathogens?
Correct Answer: Inflammation of the bladder; common pathogens: E. coli and Staphylococcus saprophyticus
1. Cystitis symptoms: frequency, urgency, dysuria, suprapubic pain (no systemic signs like fever).
2. E. coli accounts for 75-95% of uncomplicated UTIs; S. saprophyticus in young sexually active women.
3. Diagnosis: urinalysis (WBCs, nitrites, leukocyte esterase), urine culture.
3. What is renal cell carcinoma?
Correct Answer: Cancerous tumor that arises from kidney tubule cells (most common primary renal malignancy)
1. Classic triad: hematuria, flank pain, palpable mass (only 10% have all three).
2. Paraneoplastic syndromes: hypercalcemia, polycythemia, hypertension (renin).p>3. Treatment: partial or radical
nephrectomy; targeted therapy (sunitinib, pazopanib) for metastatic disease.
4. What is transitional cell carcinoma of the renal pelvis?
Correct Answer: Malignant tumor of the urinary tract (often in bladder or renal pelvis); occurs in older men; gross
painless hematuria is hallmark.
1. Urothelial carcinoma; risk factors: smoking, aniline dyes, analgesic abuse, cyclophosphamide.
2. Diagnosis: cystoscopy and biopsy, upper tract imaging (CT urogram).p>3. Treatment: radical nephroureterectomy
with bladder cuff.
5. What is glomerulonephritis and its symptoms?
Correct Answer: Inflammation of glomeruli; symptoms: hematuria with RBC casts, proteinuria (albumin), oliguria,
hypertension, edema, nephrotic sediment.
1. Primary GN: post-streptococcal, IgA nephropathy. Secondary GN: SLE, diabetes, vasculitis.
2. Nephritic syndrome presentation: hematuria, HTN, oliguria, mild proteinuria.
3. Diagnosis: low C3/C4, elevated anti-DNase B, renal biopsy.
6. What is nephrotic syndrome and what causes it?
Correct Answer: Loss of large amounts of plasma protein (albumin) in urine due to increased glomerular
membrane permeability. Causes: membranous GN, minimal change disease, FSGS, diabetes, lupus.
1. Nephrotic syndrome triad: proteinuria (>3.5 g/24h), hypoalbuminemia (<3 g/dL), edema.
2. Other features: hyperlipidemia, lipiduria (oval fat bodies, fatty casts).p>3. Minimal change disease most common in
children; responds to steroids.
, 7. What is hypospadias and epispadias?
Correct Answer: Hypospadias: urethral opening on undersurface of penis. Epispadias: urethral opening on superior
surface of penis. Both congenital.
1. Hypospadias often with chordee (downward curvature); surgery before age 18 months.
2. Epispadias associated with bladder exstrophy; more severe defects.
3. Corrective surgery preserves normal urinary and reproductive function.
8. What is Wilms tumor (nephroblastoma)?
Correct Answer: Rapidly developing malignancy of kidneys affecting children before age 5; normally found by
parents due to abdominal swelling.
1. Most common renal malignancy in children; associated with WT1 mutations.
2. Usually unilateral; palpable flank mass, possible hematuria, hypertension.
3. Treatment: nephrectomy + chemotherapy (vincristine, dactinomycin). Excellent prognosis (>90% survival).
9. What are the diagnostic criteria for PCOS (polycystic ovarian syndrome)?
Correct Answer: Two of three: irregular ovulation, elevated androgens, polycystic ovaries on ultrasound
1. Rotterdam criteria (2003): required two of three features; exclude other causes.
2. PCOS is most common endocrine disorder in reproductive-age women; high LH/FSH ratio.
3. Associated with insulin resistance, obesity, dyslipidemia, increased cardiovascular risk.
10. What is chlamydia and its symptoms?
Correct Answer: Bacterial infection (Chlamydia trachomatis) affecting reproductive organs; can cause ectopic
pregnancy. Symptoms: urethritis, penile/vaginal discharge, abdominal/rectal/testicular pain, dyspareunia, irregular
menses.
1. Most common reportable STD in US; often asymptomatic (75% women, 50% men).
2. Untreated → pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) → tubal scarring → infertility, ectopic pregnancy.p>3. Treatment:
azithromycin or doxycycline; test-of-cure in pregnancy.
11. What are the four stages of syphilis?
Correct Answer: Primary (chancre), secondary (rash on palms/soles, fever, lymphadenopathy), latent
(asymptomatic), tertiary (gummas, neurosyphilis, cardiovascular)
1. Caused by Treponema pallidum; diagnosis by serology (RPR, VDRL, FTA-ABS).
2. Primary chancre heals spontaneously in 3-6 weeks, but infection persists.p>3. Penicillin G is treatment; Jarisch-
Herxheimer reaction may occur.
12. What is gonorrhea and its symptoms?
Correct Answer: Infection of mucus membranes (cervix, uterus, fallopian tubes, urethra). Symptoms: discharge,
dysuria, unusual sores, or rash.
1. Neisseria gonorrhoeae; often co-infection with chlamydia (treat both).
2. Can cause PID, epididymitis, disseminated infection (arthritis, dermatitis).p>3. Treatment: dual therapy (ceftriaxone +
azithromycin).
13. What is trichomoniasis and its symptoms?
Correct Answer: STD caused by protozoan (Trichomonas vaginalis). Symptoms: itching, burning, redness, dysuria,
clear/white/yellow/green discharge with fishy smell.
1. Motile trichomonads seen on wet mount (saline microscopy).
2. Treatment: metronidazole or tinidazole for both partners.p>3. Associated with pregnancy complications (preterm
delivery, low birth weight).
14. What is bacterial vaginosis?
Correct Answer: Overgrowth of bacteria in vagina; characterized by itching, burning, pain, and "fishy" smelling
discharge.
1. Amsel criteria: clue cells on wet mount, pH >4.5, positive whiff test (fishy with KOH), thin gray discharge.p>2. Not an
STD but associated with sexual activity.3. Treatment: metronidazole (oral or vaginal), clindamycin.
