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NSG320/ NSG 320 Exam 1 (Latest 2026/2027 Update) | Complete Exam Questions with Verified Answers and Detailed Rationales | Cystic Fibrosis, Diabetes Mellitus, Thyroid Disorders, Electrolyte Imbalances, ABG Interpretation | A+ Graded | Grand Canyon Univers

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INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD This comprehensive EXAM resource for NSG 320 Exam 1 at Grand Canyon University covers Endocrine, Respiratory, Fluid/Electrolyte, and Acid-Base disorders for the 2026/2027 academic year. It features exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales. Exam 1 Blueprint Topics: Cystic Fibrosis (pathophysiology, manifestations, pancreatic enzymes, pulmonary management) Diabetes Mellitus (Type 1 vs Type 2, DKA, HHS, insulin therapy, metformin, SGLT2 inhibitors, GLP-1 agonists) Thyroid Disorders (hyperthyroidism, hypothyroidism, thyroid storm, myxedema coma, levothyroxine, methimazole, PTU) Electrolyte Imbalances (sodium, potassium, calcium, magnesium – causes, symptoms, ECG changes, treatments) ABG Interpretation (pH, PaCO2, HCO3, respiratory/metabolic acidosis/alkalosis, compensation) Respiratory Disorders (COPD, asthma, pneumonia, pulmonary embolism, ARDS, mechanical ventilation) CYSTIC FIBROSIS (CF) Q1. Cystic fibrosis is caused by a mutation in which gene? Correct Answer: CFTR gene on chromosome 7 Rationale: The CFTR gene encodes a chloride channel. Mutation causes defective chloride and water transport across epithelial cells, leading to thick, viscous secretions in the lungs, pancreas, liver, and reproductive tract. Q2. A child with cystic fibrosis has difficulty gaining weight despite a high-calorie diet. The nurse should anticipate which intervention? Correct Answer: Administration of pancreatic enzymes with meals and snacks Rationale: CF causes pancreatic insufficiency due to blocked pancreatic ducts. Pancreatic enzyme replacement therapy (lipase, protease, amylase) is required to digest fats and proteins and prevent malabsorption. Q3. A patient with CF has a chronic cough with thick, tenacious sputum. Which nursing intervention is most important? Correct Answer: Airway clearance therapy (chest physiotherapy, high-frequency chest wall oscillation, positive expiratory pressure) Rationale: Airway clearance techniques help mobilize thick secretions, prevent plugging, reduce infection risk, and preserve lung function. Q4. Which medication is used to correct the underlying CFTR defect in patients with specific genetic mutations? Correct Answer: CFTR modulators (ivacaftor, lumacaftor/ivacaftor, elexacaftor/tezacaftor/ivacaftor) Rationale: CFTR modulators improve CFTR protein function, leading to improved chloride transport, reduced sweat chloride, improved lung function, and fewer exacerbations. DIABETES MELLITUS Q5. A patient with type 1 diabetes is admitted with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA). Which assessment finding is most consistent with DKA? Correct Answer: Kussmaul respirations and fruity breath odor Rationale: DKA causes metabolic acidosis with respiratory compensation (Kussmaul: deep, rapid breathing). Acetone (ketone) production gives breath a fruity odor. Q6. A patient with type 2 diabetes has an A1C of 9.5% despite metformin therapy. Which medication is most likely to be added? Correct Answer: GLP-1 receptor agonist or SGLT2 inhibitor Rationale: After metformin, the next step is often a GLP-1 agonist (liraglutide, semaglutide) or SGLT2 inhibitor (empagliflozin) based on cardiovascular and weight loss benefits. Q7. Which statement about metformin is correct? Correct Answer: It should be held for 48 hours before and after iodinated contrast media Rationale: Metformin can increase the risk of lactic acidosis in patients receiving IV contrast dye. It should be held for 48 hours before/after procedures and restarted when renal function is normal. Q8. A patient taking an SGLT2 inhibitor (empagliflozin) should be educated about which potential side effect? Correct Answer: Genital yeast infections (balanitis, vulvovaginal candidiasis) Rationale: SGLT2 inhibitors cause glucosuria, creating a favorable environment for Candida overgrowth. Good perineal hygiene and prompt treatment of infections are essential. Q9. A patient with type 1 diabetes has a blood glucose of 45 mg/dL and is unconscious. Which action should the nurse take first? Correct Answer: Administer glucagon 1 mg IM or subcutaneous Rationale: For unconscious patients without IV access, glucagon is the preferred treatment for severe hypoglycemia. Glucagon stimulates hepatic glucose release. Q10. A patient with hyperglycemic hyperosmolar state (HHS) has a blood glucose of 850 mg/dL. Which finding distinguishes HHS from DKA? Correct Answer: Absence of significant ketones and metabolic acidosis Rationale: HHS presents with severe hyperglycemia, hyperosmolality, and profound dehydration without significant ketosis or acidosis (pH 7.30, HCO3 18). Q11. A patient with diabetes reports morning hyperglycemia with normal bedtime glucose and no nocturnal hypoglycemia. This pattern is most consistent with: Correct Answer: Dawn phenomenon Rationale: Dawn phenomenon is an early morning rise in blood glucose due to normal overnight release of growth hormone and cortisol without antecedent hypoglycemia. THYROID DISORDERS Q12. A patient with hyperthyroidism is prescribed methimazole. The nurse should monitor for which adverse effect? Correct Answer: Agranulocytosis (fever, sore throat, mouth ulcers) Continue

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NSG-320 Exam 1: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Cystic Fibrosis, Diabetes,
Thyroid Disorders, Electrolyte Imbalances, ABGs, Respiratory Diagnostics,
Trauma & Surgery | Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Answers) –
Nursing Program

Subject: Medical-Surgical Nursing – Cystic Fibrosis Interventions; Prediabetes & Metabolic Syndrome; Diabetes Mellitus
(Diagnostics, Insulin Types, Complications, SICK Day Management); Thyroid Disorders (Hypothyroidism/Hyperthyroidism,
Graves', Medications); Trauma Center Levels (1-4); Surgery Classifications; Anesthesia Types; Malignant Hyperthermia; Fluid &
Electrolyte Imbalances (Na, K, Ca, Mg, Phos, FVD/FVE); ABG Interpretation; Respiratory Diagnostics (CXR, CT, MRI, V/Q, PET,
Bronchoscopy, PFTs, Thoracentesis); Asthma Medications; COPD (Chronic Bronchitis, Emphysema); Pneumonia & TB
Interventions
Source: NSG-320 Exam 1 Bank – Latest 2026/2027 Curriculum
Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale
Total Questions: 100+ (All processed – no omissions)


1. What are nursing interventions for cystic fibrosis?
Correct Answer: Pulmonary: aerosol/nebulizer treatments, CPT (postural drainage with percussion/vibration),
PEP devices (Flutter), O2 therapy in severe disease, antibiotics (long course, implanted ports). Pancreatic
insufficiency: enzyme replacement (Pancreaze, Creon, Ultresa) before each meal/snack, vitamin supplements (A,
D, E, K), diet high in fat/calories/protein/vitamins, added salt with excessive sweating. Diabetes: administer
insulin.
1. Mucus plugging is primary problem; CPT and nebulizers help clear secretions.
2. Pancreatic enzymes must be taken with ALL meals and snacks.

2. What is meconium ileus?
Correct Answer: A bowel obstruction that occurs when meconium is thicker and stickier than normal, creating
a blockage in the ileum. Most infants with meconium ileus have cystic fibrosis.
1. May be first sign of CF in newborns.
2. Presents with abdominal distension, failure to pass meconium, vomiting.

3. What is prediabetes?
Correct Answer: A condition in which blood sugar is higher than normal but not high enough to be classified
as type 2 diabetes. Includes impaired glucose tolerance (2-hour plasma glucose 140-199 mg/dL) and/or
impaired fasting glucose (fasting blood glucose 100-125 mg/dL).
1. Education vital to prevent progression to type 2 DM.
2. Screening and risk factor management essential.

4. What are the features of metabolic syndrome (syndrome X)?
Correct Answer: Abdominal obesity; hyperglycemia fasting >100; hypertension >130/85; hyperlipidemia
(triglycerides >150, HDL <40-50); abnormal A1C 5.5%-6.5%.
1. Associated with type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular disease.
2. Lifestyle modifications reduce risk.

5. What are diabetes diagnostic criteria?
Correct Answer: A1C ≥6.5%; FPG ≥126 mg/dL; 2-hour OGTT ≥200 mg/dL; classic hyperglycemia symptoms
with random glucose ≥200 mg/dL.
1. Normal blood sugar: 74-106 mg/dL.
2. Confirmation requires repeat testing unless symptomatic.

, 6. What are microvascular and macrovascular diabetic complications?
Correct Answer: Microvascular: eye/vision changes (retinopathy), diabetic peripheral neuropathy, diabetic
nephropathy (microalbuminuria), male ED, cognitive dysfunction. Macrovascular: cardiovascular disease, stroke,
heart attack, sudden death.
1. Strict glucose control reduces microvascular complications.
2. BP and lipid management reduce macrovascular risk.

7. What are signs/symptoms of hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia?
Correct Answer: Hyperglycemia (>200): "Hot and dry – sugar is high" – warm moist skin, dehydration, positive
urine ketones/glucose. Hypoglycemia (<70): "Cold and clammy – need some candy" – cool clammy sweaty skin,
hungry, anxious, shaky, irritable, confusion, seizures, coma.
1. Rule of 15 for hypoglycemia: 15g carbs, recheck in 15 minutes.
2. Sliding scale insulin if BS >250.

8. What are the types of insulin?
Correct Answer: Rapid-acting (lispro, aspart, glulisine): onset 10-30 min, peak 30 min-3 hr, duration 3-5 hr –
inject within 15 min of meal. Short-acting (Regular): onset 30-60 min, peak 2-5 hr, duration 5-8 hr – 30-45 min
before meal. Intermediate (NPH): onset 1.5-4 hr, peak 4-12 hr, duration 12-18 hr – cloudy, can mix. Long-acting
(glargine, detemir, degludec): onset 0.8-4 hr, peak none, duration 16-24 hr – do NOT mix.
1. Basal-bolus regimen mimics normal pancreas.
2. Mealtime insulin provides additional coverage for meals.

9. What are the Somogyi effect and dawn phenomenon?
Correct Answer: Somogyi: insulin overdose causes nocturnal hypoglycemia → counterregulatory hormones →
rebound hyperglycemia (check 2-4am). Dawn phenomenon: morning hyperglycemia from growth hormone and
cortisol release; more common in adolescence. Treatment: Somogyi – reduce insulin or bedtime snack; dawn –
increase insulin or adjust timing.
1. Check blood glucose between 2-4am to differentiate.
2. Somogyi may cause headaches, night sweats, nightmares.

10. What is SICK day management for diabetes?
Correct Answer: S: Sugar – check BS every 2-3 hours. I: Insulin – ALWAYS take insulin. C: Carbs – drink lots of
fluids; sugar-free if high, carb-containing if low. K: Ketones – check urine ketones every 4 hours (if BS >240);
take rapid-acting insulin if ketones present. Danger signals: persistent N/V, moderate/large ketones, elevated
BS after two supplement doses, high fever >24 hours.
1. Never omit insulin during illness – risk of DKA.
2. Encourage hydration to prevent dehydration.

11. What is hypothyroidism?
Correct Answer: Deficiency of thyroid hormone causing general slowing of metabolic rate. Primary: destruction
of thyroid tissue or defective hormone synthesis (Hashimoto's). Secondary: pituitary disease or hypothalamic
dysfunction. Manifestations: fatigue, weight gain, cold intolerance, constipation, decreased cardiac output,
increased cholesterol, anemia. TSH elevated (>4.5), normal T4.
1. Treatment: levothyroxine (Synthroid) lifelong.
2. Monitor HR – report pulse >100 or irregular; report chest pain, weight loss, nervousness, tremors, insomnia (over-replacement).


12. What is hyperthyroidism?
Correct Answer: Sustained increase in thyroid hormone synthesis/release. Causes: Graves' disease, toxic
nodular goiter, thyroiditis, excess iodine, pituitary tumors. Manifestations: goiter, exophthalmos (usually not
reversible), weight loss, nervousness, tachycardia, systolic hypertension, heat intolerance, tremors, insomnia.
TSH low/undetectable, T4 elevated.
1. Anti-thyroid drugs (PTU, methimazole) – initial treatment, inhibit iodine binding.
2. Propranolol (beta-blocker) – supportive therapy for palpitations/tachycardia.

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