Written by students who passed Immediately available after payment Read online or as PDF Wrong document? Swap it for free 4.6 TrustPilot
logo-home
Document preview thumbnail
Preview 2 out of 13 pages
Exam (elaborations)

NSG430/ NSG 430 Exam 1 (2026/2027 Update) | Complete Exam Questions with Verified Answers and Detailed Rationales | Critical Care, Endocrine Emergencies, Respiratory Failure, Hemodynamic Monitoring | A+ Graded

Document preview thumbnail
Preview 2 out of 13 pages

INSTANT PDF DOWNLOAD This comprehensive EXAM resource for the NSG 430 Adult Health Nursing II Exam 1 at Grand Canyon University covers essential critical care and end-of-life topics for the 2026/2027 academic year . It features exam-style questions with verified answers and detailed rationales . Exam 1 Blueprint Topics: End-of-Life & Palliative Care (18%) - hospice vs palliative, physical manifestations of dying, brain death criteria, postmortem care, ethical principles Endocrine Emergencies (36-38%) - DKA, HHS, thyroid storm, myxedema coma, Addisonian crisis, SIADH, Diabetes Insipidus, Cushing's syndrome Respiratory Disorders & Hemodynamic Monitoring (36-40%) - ARDS, acute respiratory failure, tension pneumothorax, chest tubes, mechanical ventilation, ABG interpretation, preload/afterload, CVP, PAWP Dosage Calculations - 4 math questions integrated into exam SATA Questions - 4 questions integrated into all topics END-OF-LIFE & PALLIATIVE CARE Q1. What is palliative care? Correct Answer: Care or treatment focusing on reducing the severity of symptoms; curative treatment can still be involved Rationale: Palliative care focuses on symptom management and quality of life regardless of prognosis. It can be provided concurrently with curative treatment . Q2. What is hospice care? Correct Answer: Treatment of the terminally ill with the goal of helping them die comfortably without pain; curative care is forgone Rationale: Hospice care requires physician certification that life expectancy is 6 months or less. It focuses on comfort measures only, not curative treatment . Q3. What are the physical manifestations of end of life - respiratory? Correct Answer: Cheyne-Stokes respirations, death rattle, terminal secretions, loss of gag reflex (risk for aspiration) Rationale: Cheyne-Stokes respirations involve alternating periods of apnea and deep, rapid breathing. These changes occur as the body begins to shut down, with respirations generally ceasing first . Q4. What are the physical manifestations of end of life - integumentary? Correct Answer: Mottling (purple and white leopard skin appearance), cyanosis in nail beds, cold/clammy skin, and waxlike skin very near death Rationale: These changes result from decreased peripheral perfusion and reduced cardiac output as death approaches. Hearing is typically the last sense to disappear . Q5. What is decisional capacity? Correct Answer: The ability to consent to or refuse care Rationale: Patients must demonstrate understanding, appreciation, reasoning, and ability to express a choice to have decisional capacity . Q6. What guides nursing care at end of life? (Select all that apply) Correct Answers: Code of Ethics (relieve suffering), Principle of Beneficence (care is provided to benefit), Standard of Care (define nursing acts required for safe and competent care) Rationale: These ethical and professional guidelines direct nurses in providing compassionate end-of-life care. The moral obligation of a nurse at end of life is to relieve suffering . Q7. What are common fears at end of life? (Select all that apply) Correct Answers: Fear of pain, fear of dyspnea (air hunger), fear of loneliness/abandonment, fear of meaninglessness Rationale: Patients fear the sensation of air hunger, which causes anxiety. Presence of people provides comfort and a sense of security. Life review through photo albums may help address meaninglessness . Q8. What is the doctrine of double effect? Correct Answer: Ethical principle that allows administration of pain medication that may hasten death when the primary intent is to relieve suffering Rationale: This principle guides palliative sedation and pain management at end of life when the goal is comfort, not hastening death. Q9. What assessments are appropriate in the last hours of life? Correct Answer: Limit to comfort measures; concerns about pain and respiratory status should be addressed; provide emotional/comfort support Rationale: Frequent vital signs and invasive assessments are discontinued. Focus shifts to symptom management and family support. Pain level and respiratory status may be most important during this time . Q10. What is postmortem care? Correct Answer: Close patient's eyes, replace dentures, wash and position body, allow family privacy Rationale: Never refer to the deceased as "the body" . Postmortem care should be performed with dignity and respect, allowing family time to say goodbye. Remove lines and dressings and clean the body . DIABETIC KETOACIDOSIS (DKA) Q11. What is the classic triad of DKA? Correct Answer: Hyperglycemia (250 mg/dL), ketones, and metabolic acidosis (pH 7.30) Rationale: DKA results from absolute insulin deficiency causing hyperglycemia, ketone production, and metabolic acidosis. It develops over HOURS to 1-2 days and is more common in Type 1 diabetes . Q12. What are the manifestations of DKA? (Select all that apply) Correct Answers: Profound dehydration, tachycardia, polyuria, ketonuria, hot/dry skin, Kussmaul respirations, fruity breath (acetone), nausea/vomiting, abdominal pain, BG 250, pH 7.30 Rationale: Dehydration occurs from osmotic diuresis. Kussmaul respirations are compensatory for metabolic acidosis. Abdominal pain can be severe and mimics acute abdomen . Q13. What is the treatment for DKA?

Content preview

NSG-430 Exam 1: (Latest 2026/2027 Update) Thyroid, SIADH, DI, ARDS,
ARF, Lung Cancer | Q&A | Grade A | 100% Correct (Verified Answers) –
Nursing Program

Subject: Endocrine Disorders (Thyroid, SIADH, DI) & Respiratory Failure (ARDS, ARF, Lung Cancer,
Pneumothorax)
Source: NSG-430 Exam 1 Bank – Latest 2026/2027 Curriculum
Format: Q&A Guide with Clinical Rationale
Total Questions: 98 (All processed – no omissions)


1: What medication increases thyroid hormone?
Correct Answer: Aspirin
1. Aspirin at high doses can displace thyroid hormones from binding proteins, increasing free T3/T4 levels.
2. This effect is clinically relevant in patients on thyroid replacement; close monitoring is required.

2: What are anti-thyroid medications?
Correct Answer: PTU, methimazole
1. Propylthiouracil (PTU) and methimazole inhibit thyroid peroxidase, reducing thyroid hormone synthesis.
2. PTU also blocks peripheral conversion of T4 to T3.


3: Which anti-thyroid medication can be given during the first trimester of pregnancy?
Correct Answer: PTU
1. PTU is preferred in the first trimester due to lower risk of teratogenic effects compared to methimazole.
2. After the first trimester, patients may switch to methimazole due to PTU's hepatotoxicity risk.

4: What organ can be damaged by PTU (propylthiouracil)?
Correct Answer: Liver
1. PTU carries a black box warning for severe hepatotoxicity, including liver failure and death.
2. Patients should be monitored for jaundice, dark urine, and elevated LFTs.


5: What are two adverse effects of anti-thyroid medications?
Correct Answer: agranulocytosis, thrombocytopenia
1. Agranulocytosis (fever, sore throat) is a rare but life-threatening reaction requiring prompt discontinuation.
2. Thrombocytopenia can also occur; monitor CBC regularly during therapy.


6: What medication blocks the secretion of thyroid hormones?
Correct Answer: Iodine "Lugol's" solution
1. Lugol's solution inhibits thyroid hormone release by blocking thyroglobulin proteolysis.
2. It is used preoperatively for thyroidectomy and in thyroid storm after antithyroid drugs.

, 7: What medication prevents the conversion of thyroid hormones (T4 to T3)?
Correct Answer: dexamethasone
1. Dexamethasone inhibits peripheral conversion of T4 to active T3, used in thyroid storm management.
2. This effect is dose-dependent and occurs within hours of administration.


8: What drug class is dexamethasone?
Correct Answer: glucocorticoid
1. Dexamethasone is a potent long-acting glucocorticoid with anti-inflammatory and immunosuppressant
properties.
2. It also suppresses ACTH release and has mineralocorticoid activity.


9: What is a side effect of Lugol's solution (iodine)?
Correct Answer: metallic taste
1. Metallic taste (dysgeusia) is a common and benign side effect of iodine solutions.
2. Other side effects include burning mouth, increased salivation, and GI upset.


10: What medication inhibits thyroid secretion?
Correct Answer: lithium
1. Lithium inhibits thyroid hormone release and can cause hypothyroidism or goiter in long-term use.
2. Thyroid function should be monitored regularly in patients taking lithium.


11: What are the signs and symptoms of hyponatremia?
Correct Answer: seizures, headache, vomiting, decreased neurologic function
1. Neurologic symptoms dominate due to cerebral edema from osmotic fluid shift.
2. Severity correlates with rapidity of onset; chronic hyponatremia may be asymptomatic or mild.


12: What does the sodium level need to be to administer furosemide?
Correct Answer: 125 or greater
1. Furosemide can worsen hyponatremia; it is generally avoided when Na <125 mEq/L.
2. Loop diuretics are used cautiously in SIADH only after careful risk-benefit analysis.


13: What does demeclocycline do?
Correct Answer: blocks the effect of ADH
1. Demeclocycline induces nephrogenic diabetes insipidus by antagonizing ADH at the collecting duct.
2. It is used in chronic SIADH when fluid restriction fails.


14: At what sodium level would 3% sodium chloride be given?
Correct Answer: 120 mEq/L
1. Severe symptomatic hyponatremia (Na <120 with seizures) requires hypertonic saline.
2. Administer in ICU with close neurologic and electrolyte monitoring.

Document information

Uploaded on
May 7, 2026
Number of pages
13
Written in
2025/2026
Type
Exam (elaborations)
Contains
Questions & answers
$12.49

Wrong document? Swap it for free Within 14 days of purchase and before downloading, you can choose a different document. You can simply spend the amount again.
Written by students who passed
Immediately available after payment
Read online or as PDF

Seller avatar
Reputation scores are based on the amount of documents a seller has sold for a fee and the reviews they have received for those documents. There are three levels: Bronze, Silver and Gold. The better the reputation, the more your can rely on the quality of the sellers work.
DoctorKen
3.8
(157)
Sold
855
Followers
118
Items
6584
Last sold
6 hours ago



Why students choose Stuvia

Created by fellow students, verified by reviews

Quality you can trust: written by students who passed their tests and reviewed by others who've used these notes.

Didn't get what you expected? Choose another document

No worries! You can instantly pick a different document that better fits what you're looking for.

Pay as you like, start learning right away

No subscription, no commitments. Pay the way you're used to via credit card and download your PDF document instantly.

Student with book image

“Bought, downloaded, and aced it. It really can be that simple.”

Alisha Student

Working on your references?

Create accurate citations in APA, MLA and Harvard with our free citation generator.

Working on your references?

Frequently asked questions