CPPM Final Exam Study Guide – UPDATED ACTUAL Exam
Questions and Correct Answers
1. Which of the following statements correctly describes external quality benchmarking?
A) Comparing measurements to other organizations or industries to improve performance
B) Measuring data over time in the practice to make improvements
C) Hiring an outside consultant to manage your QI initiatives
D) Reviewing data from lower performing organizations to identify what is being done well
Answer: A
Explanation: External quality benchmarking involves comparing your practice's performance metrics
against those of other organizations (or industry standards) to identify gaps and drive improvement.
2. Which of the following is NOT a requirement under a Corporate Integrity Agreement (CIA)?
A) Mandatory billing and coding guidelines for employees
B) Implementation of a compliance plan
C) Mandatory compliance education for all employees
D) Designation of a compliance officer
Answer: A (is required) – The question asks for NOT a requirement; all are generally required. However,
some sources may list specific exclusions. AAPC materials indicate that CIAs require compliance plans,
education, and officer designation; billing/coding guidelines are standard but not always explicitly
mandated separately. [7†L19-L21]
3. What do you need to ensure patient safety in the event of a disaster?
A) Plan business continuity, financial security, management plans
B) Plan business continuity, a management plan, recovery resources
C) Plan business continuity, recovery resources, corrective measures
D) None of the above
Answer: B
,Explanation: A comprehensive disaster plan includes business continuity, a management plan, and
recovery resources to maintain patient safety and operations.
4. The receptionist in a clinic is having difficulty knowing when she can give information over the phone.
How can the practice manager streamline this process?
A) Have the receptionist get approval from the physician on a case-by-case basis
B) Create protocols to define how to address different requests
C) Have the receptionist transfer any call not related to scheduling to the nurses
D) Hire a medical assistant to answer the phones
Answer: B
Explanation: Establishing clear protocols and policies for releasing information over the phone ensures
consistency, compliance with HIPAA, and efficient handling of calls. [7†L26-L32]
5. Which of the below is NOT a safeguard of the HIPAA Security Rule?
A) Professional
B) Physical
C) Technical
D) Administrative
Answer: A
Explanation: The HIPAA Security Rule mandates administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to
protect electronic protected health information (ePHI). "Professional" is not one of the categories.
[7†L33-L34]
6. Value-based purchasing (VBP) is a reimbursement model that pays hospitals based on performance
around:
I. Patient satisfaction scores
II. Quality of care
III. Efficiency
IV. Return on investment
,V. Number of physicians employed
A) I, II, and III
B) II, III, and V
C) I and IV
D) II and V
Answer: A
Explanation: VBP programs tie reimbursement to patient satisfaction (HCAHPS), clinical quality
measures, and efficiency/cost reduction. ROI and physician count are not direct VBP metrics. [7†L34-
L38]
7. Benefits of e‑prescribing services include which of the following?
A) Increased revenue for the practice
B) Guaranteed prevention of fraudulent prescriptions
C) Point‑of‑care provider access to the patient's payer formulary
D) Elimination of patient reactions to medication
Answer: C
Explanation: E‑prescribing gives providers real‑time access to formulary information at the point of care,
improving medication adherence and reducing prior authorizations. [7†L40-L43]
8. Which option below would be the most effective interview question about employee conflict
resolution?
A) "In the past, when in conflict with another employee, how was the conflict resolved?"
B) "In the past, when in conflict with another employee, were you able to resolve the conflict?"
C) "Have you ever had a conflict with another employee?"
D) "In your last employee conflict, how many employees were involved?"
Answer: A
, Explanation: Open-ended behavioral questions (e.g., "how was it resolved?") elicit specific examples of
past behavior, which is a strong predictor of future performance. Yes/no or quantitative questions yield
less useful information. [7†L44-L49]
9. The office is implementing a new automated telephone triage system. What option would be best for
an automated attendant?
A) Have options for every department and each provider
B) Limit the number of options with clear, simple directions
C) A single long voicemail message with detailed instructions
D) No menu; automatically transfer all calls to a live operator
Answer: B
Explanation: IVR systems are most effective when menu options are limited (ideally 3–5) and
instructions are clear. Too many options confuse callers and increase hang‑ups. [7†L49-L52]
10. Which of the following services would be the most profitable and efficient use of a mid‑level
provider in a physician’s office that meets incident‑to rules?
A) Sees established patients for follow‑up visits of established conditions
B) Performs the physician’s hospital rounds
C) Sees established patients with a new problem
D) Sees all new patients
Answer: A
Explanation: Under incident‑to rules, mid‑level providers can bill under the physician’s NPI for
established patients with established problems when the physician is present in the office suite. This
maximizes reimbursement and efficiency. [11†L16-L21]
Questions and Correct Answers
1. Which of the following statements correctly describes external quality benchmarking?
A) Comparing measurements to other organizations or industries to improve performance
B) Measuring data over time in the practice to make improvements
C) Hiring an outside consultant to manage your QI initiatives
D) Reviewing data from lower performing organizations to identify what is being done well
Answer: A
Explanation: External quality benchmarking involves comparing your practice's performance metrics
against those of other organizations (or industry standards) to identify gaps and drive improvement.
2. Which of the following is NOT a requirement under a Corporate Integrity Agreement (CIA)?
A) Mandatory billing and coding guidelines for employees
B) Implementation of a compliance plan
C) Mandatory compliance education for all employees
D) Designation of a compliance officer
Answer: A (is required) – The question asks for NOT a requirement; all are generally required. However,
some sources may list specific exclusions. AAPC materials indicate that CIAs require compliance plans,
education, and officer designation; billing/coding guidelines are standard but not always explicitly
mandated separately. [7†L19-L21]
3. What do you need to ensure patient safety in the event of a disaster?
A) Plan business continuity, financial security, management plans
B) Plan business continuity, a management plan, recovery resources
C) Plan business continuity, recovery resources, corrective measures
D) None of the above
Answer: B
,Explanation: A comprehensive disaster plan includes business continuity, a management plan, and
recovery resources to maintain patient safety and operations.
4. The receptionist in a clinic is having difficulty knowing when she can give information over the phone.
How can the practice manager streamline this process?
A) Have the receptionist get approval from the physician on a case-by-case basis
B) Create protocols to define how to address different requests
C) Have the receptionist transfer any call not related to scheduling to the nurses
D) Hire a medical assistant to answer the phones
Answer: B
Explanation: Establishing clear protocols and policies for releasing information over the phone ensures
consistency, compliance with HIPAA, and efficient handling of calls. [7†L26-L32]
5. Which of the below is NOT a safeguard of the HIPAA Security Rule?
A) Professional
B) Physical
C) Technical
D) Administrative
Answer: A
Explanation: The HIPAA Security Rule mandates administrative, physical, and technical safeguards to
protect electronic protected health information (ePHI). "Professional" is not one of the categories.
[7†L33-L34]
6. Value-based purchasing (VBP) is a reimbursement model that pays hospitals based on performance
around:
I. Patient satisfaction scores
II. Quality of care
III. Efficiency
IV. Return on investment
,V. Number of physicians employed
A) I, II, and III
B) II, III, and V
C) I and IV
D) II and V
Answer: A
Explanation: VBP programs tie reimbursement to patient satisfaction (HCAHPS), clinical quality
measures, and efficiency/cost reduction. ROI and physician count are not direct VBP metrics. [7†L34-
L38]
7. Benefits of e‑prescribing services include which of the following?
A) Increased revenue for the practice
B) Guaranteed prevention of fraudulent prescriptions
C) Point‑of‑care provider access to the patient's payer formulary
D) Elimination of patient reactions to medication
Answer: C
Explanation: E‑prescribing gives providers real‑time access to formulary information at the point of care,
improving medication adherence and reducing prior authorizations. [7†L40-L43]
8. Which option below would be the most effective interview question about employee conflict
resolution?
A) "In the past, when in conflict with another employee, how was the conflict resolved?"
B) "In the past, when in conflict with another employee, were you able to resolve the conflict?"
C) "Have you ever had a conflict with another employee?"
D) "In your last employee conflict, how many employees were involved?"
Answer: A
, Explanation: Open-ended behavioral questions (e.g., "how was it resolved?") elicit specific examples of
past behavior, which is a strong predictor of future performance. Yes/no or quantitative questions yield
less useful information. [7†L44-L49]
9. The office is implementing a new automated telephone triage system. What option would be best for
an automated attendant?
A) Have options for every department and each provider
B) Limit the number of options with clear, simple directions
C) A single long voicemail message with detailed instructions
D) No menu; automatically transfer all calls to a live operator
Answer: B
Explanation: IVR systems are most effective when menu options are limited (ideally 3–5) and
instructions are clear. Too many options confuse callers and increase hang‑ups. [7†L49-L52]
10. Which of the following services would be the most profitable and efficient use of a mid‑level
provider in a physician’s office that meets incident‑to rules?
A) Sees established patients for follow‑up visits of established conditions
B) Performs the physician’s hospital rounds
C) Sees established patients with a new problem
D) Sees all new patients
Answer: A
Explanation: Under incident‑to rules, mid‑level providers can bill under the physician’s NPI for
established patients with established problems when the physician is present in the office suite. This
maximizes reimbursement and efficiency. [11†L16-L21]
