ATI CMS MEGA BUNDLE 2026
2027 200 HIGH YIELD Q AND AS
MED SURG OB PEDS MENTAL
HEALTH AND LEADERSHIP
ATI CMS Mega Bundle: 2026–2027 Comprehensive Prep
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative
following a total thyroidectomy. Which of the following
findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A) Client reports a sore throat when swallowing.
B) Laryngeal stridor heard on inspiration.
C) Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL.
D) Scant serosanguineous drainage on the dressing.
Rationale: Laryngeal stridor indicates an airway obstruction, possibly
due to edema or nerve damage, and is a life-threatening emergency
(Airway-Breathing-Circulation priority).
2. A nurse is assessing a client in the active phase of labor. The
electronic fetal monitor shows a pattern of late decelerations.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
B) Increase the rate of the IV fluid infusion.
C) Assist the client into a left-lateral position.
D) Perform a vaginal exam to check for cord prolapse.
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The
first action should be to improve blood flow to the placenta by
repositioning the client to the side.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a toddler who
has a new diagnosis of Celiac disease. Which of the following
food choices should the nurse recommend?
A) Whole wheat crackers.
B) Tapioca pudding.
C) Rye bread toast.
D) Barley soup.
,Rationale: Celiac disease requires a gluten-free diet. Wheat, rye, and
barley contain gluten; tapioca is a gluten-free starch.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Schizophrenia and is
taking Haloperidol. The nurse notes the client is experiencing
upward deviation of the eyes and neck spasms. Which of the
following medications should the nurse prepare to
administer?
A) Lorazepam.
B) Benztropine.
C) Risperidone.
D) Lithium carbonate.
Rationale: The client is showing signs of an acute dystonic reaction (an
extrapyramidal side effect). Benztropine, an anticholinergic, is the gold
standard for reversal.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for Digoxin
0.125 mg PO daily. Which of the following findings should lead
the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A) Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg.
B) Potassium level 3.2 mEq/L.
C) Heart rate 72/min.
D) Digoxin level 0.8 ng/mL.
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) significantly increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity. The nurse must address the potassium level
before administering the dose.
6. A nurse is assessing a child who has acute
glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings should
the nurse expect?
A) Periorbital edema and smoky-colored urine.
B) Hypotension and polyuria.
C) Low specific gravity of urine.
D) Weight loss.
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis causes fluid retention (edema) and
hematuria/proteinuria, which gives the urine a smoky or "tea-colored"
appearance.
7. A nurse is caring for a client in the manic phase of Bipolar
Disorder. Which of the following dietary interventions is most
appropriate?
A) Provide a quiet, communal dining area to encourage social
,interaction.
B) Offer three large, high-calorie meals per day.
C) Provide high-calorie "finger foods" that can be eaten while
walking.
D) Limit fluid intake to prevent water intoxication.
Rationale: Clients in a manic state are hyperactive and often unable to
sit still to eat. Portable, high-calorie snacks help maintain nutrition.
8. A nurse is evaluating the lab results of a client with Chronic
Renal Failure. Which of the following results is the nurse’s
priority to report?
A) Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL.
B) Potassium 6.8 mEq/L.
C) Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
D) Calcium 8.2 mg/dL.
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.8 is critically high (hyperkalemia)
and can lead to lethal cardiac arrhythmias.
9. A nurse is caring for a client 2 hours postpartum who is
saturating a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Which of the
following is the nurse's priority action?
A) Administer Oxytocin IV.
B) Request a hemoglobin and hematocrit level.
C) Massage the fundus.
D) Increase the IV fluid rate.
Rationale: The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is
uterine atony. Massaging the fundus is the immediate, non-invasive
first step to stimulate contraction.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer the Varicella vaccine to
a 12-month-old child. Which of the following factors is a
contraindication for this vaccine?
A) Recent exposure to a cold.
B) Current treatment with corticosteroids.
C) History of local reaction to the flu shot.
D) Allergy to penicillin.
Rationale: Varicella is a live virus vaccine. Immunosuppression (from
high-dose steroids or disease) is a contraindication.
11. A nurse is assessing a client with Cushing’s Syndrome.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Truncal obesity and "moon face."
, B) Weight loss and hypotension.
C) Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
D) Hyperactive bowel sounds.
Rationale: Cushing's is caused by excess cortisol, leading to fat
redistribution (buffalo hump/moon face) and fluid retention.
12. A nurse in a mental health clinic is caring for a client with
Anorexia Nervosa. Which of the following should be the
nurse's priority?
A) Assessing the client's self-esteem.
B) Discussing the client's fear of weight gain.
C) Monitoring the client's electrolyte levels.
D) Establishing a contract for meal completion.
Rationale: Physiological safety always comes first. Severe electrolyte
imbalances (like hypokalemia) can cause cardiac arrest.
13. A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected Abruptio
Placentae. Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
A) Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
B) Board-like, tender abdomen with dark red bleeding.
C) Increased fetal movement.
D) Soft, non-tender uterus.
Rationale: Abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the
placenta, causing severe pain and uterine rigidity (board-like).
14. A nurse is teaching the parent of an infant about
preventing SIDS. Which of the following statements by the
parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will place my baby to sleep on her stomach."
B) "I will keep plenty of soft blankets in the crib."
C) "I will place my baby on her back to sleep."
D) "I will use a soft mattress to cushion the baby."
Rationale: The "Back to Sleep" campaign is the primary intervention to
reduce the risk of SIDS.
15. A nurse is assessing a client with Grave's Disease. Which of
the following clinical manifestations is a sign of a "Thyroid
Storm"?
A) Bradycardia and cold intolerance.
B) Hyperpyrexia and extreme tachycardia.
C) Constipation and lethargy.
2027 200 HIGH YIELD Q AND AS
MED SURG OB PEDS MENTAL
HEALTH AND LEADERSHIP
ATI CMS Mega Bundle: 2026–2027 Comprehensive Prep
1. A nurse is caring for a client who is 4 hours postoperative
following a total thyroidectomy. Which of the following
findings is the priority for the nurse to report to the provider?
A) Client reports a sore throat when swallowing.
B) Laryngeal stridor heard on inspiration.
C) Calcium level of 9.0 mg/dL.
D) Scant serosanguineous drainage on the dressing.
Rationale: Laryngeal stridor indicates an airway obstruction, possibly
due to edema or nerve damage, and is a life-threatening emergency
(Airway-Breathing-Circulation priority).
2. A nurse is assessing a client in the active phase of labor. The
electronic fetal monitor shows a pattern of late decelerations.
Which of the following actions should the nurse take first?
A) Administer oxygen via nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
B) Increase the rate of the IV fluid infusion.
C) Assist the client into a left-lateral position.
D) Perform a vaginal exam to check for cord prolapse.
Rationale: Late decelerations indicate uteroplacental insufficiency. The
first action should be to improve blood flow to the placenta by
repositioning the client to the side.
3. A nurse is providing teaching to the parents of a toddler who
has a new diagnosis of Celiac disease. Which of the following
food choices should the nurse recommend?
A) Whole wheat crackers.
B) Tapioca pudding.
C) Rye bread toast.
D) Barley soup.
,Rationale: Celiac disease requires a gluten-free diet. Wheat, rye, and
barley contain gluten; tapioca is a gluten-free starch.
4. A nurse is assessing a client who has Schizophrenia and is
taking Haloperidol. The nurse notes the client is experiencing
upward deviation of the eyes and neck spasms. Which of the
following medications should the nurse prepare to
administer?
A) Lorazepam.
B) Benztropine.
C) Risperidone.
D) Lithium carbonate.
Rationale: The client is showing signs of an acute dystonic reaction (an
extrapyramidal side effect). Benztropine, an anticholinergic, is the gold
standard for reversal.
5. A nurse is caring for a client with a prescription for Digoxin
0.125 mg PO daily. Which of the following findings should lead
the nurse to withhold the medication and notify the provider?
A) Blood pressure 142/92 mm Hg.
B) Potassium level 3.2 mEq/L.
C) Heart rate 72/min.
D) Digoxin level 0.8 ng/mL.
Rationale: Hypokalemia (low potassium) significantly increases the
risk of digoxin toxicity. The nurse must address the potassium level
before administering the dose.
6. A nurse is assessing a child who has acute
glomerulonephritis. Which of the following findings should
the nurse expect?
A) Periorbital edema and smoky-colored urine.
B) Hypotension and polyuria.
C) Low specific gravity of urine.
D) Weight loss.
Rationale: Acute glomerulonephritis causes fluid retention (edema) and
hematuria/proteinuria, which gives the urine a smoky or "tea-colored"
appearance.
7. A nurse is caring for a client in the manic phase of Bipolar
Disorder. Which of the following dietary interventions is most
appropriate?
A) Provide a quiet, communal dining area to encourage social
,interaction.
B) Offer three large, high-calorie meals per day.
C) Provide high-calorie "finger foods" that can be eaten while
walking.
D) Limit fluid intake to prevent water intoxication.
Rationale: Clients in a manic state are hyperactive and often unable to
sit still to eat. Portable, high-calorie snacks help maintain nutrition.
8. A nurse is evaluating the lab results of a client with Chronic
Renal Failure. Which of the following results is the nurse’s
priority to report?
A) Creatinine 2.5 mg/dL.
B) Potassium 6.8 mEq/L.
C) Hemoglobin 10 g/dL.
D) Calcium 8.2 mg/dL.
Rationale: A potassium level of 6.8 is critically high (hyperkalemia)
and can lead to lethal cardiac arrhythmias.
9. A nurse is caring for a client 2 hours postpartum who is
saturating a perineal pad every 15 minutes. Which of the
following is the nurse's priority action?
A) Administer Oxytocin IV.
B) Request a hemoglobin and hematocrit level.
C) Massage the fundus.
D) Increase the IV fluid rate.
Rationale: The most common cause of postpartum hemorrhage is
uterine atony. Massaging the fundus is the immediate, non-invasive
first step to stimulate contraction.
10. A nurse is preparing to administer the Varicella vaccine to
a 12-month-old child. Which of the following factors is a
contraindication for this vaccine?
A) Recent exposure to a cold.
B) Current treatment with corticosteroids.
C) History of local reaction to the flu shot.
D) Allergy to penicillin.
Rationale: Varicella is a live virus vaccine. Immunosuppression (from
high-dose steroids or disease) is a contraindication.
11. A nurse is assessing a client with Cushing’s Syndrome.
Which of the following findings should the nurse expect?
A) Truncal obesity and "moon face."
, B) Weight loss and hypotension.
C) Hyperpigmentation of the skin.
D) Hyperactive bowel sounds.
Rationale: Cushing's is caused by excess cortisol, leading to fat
redistribution (buffalo hump/moon face) and fluid retention.
12. A nurse in a mental health clinic is caring for a client with
Anorexia Nervosa. Which of the following should be the
nurse's priority?
A) Assessing the client's self-esteem.
B) Discussing the client's fear of weight gain.
C) Monitoring the client's electrolyte levels.
D) Establishing a contract for meal completion.
Rationale: Physiological safety always comes first. Severe electrolyte
imbalances (like hypokalemia) can cause cardiac arrest.
13. A nurse is caring for a client with a suspected Abruptio
Placentae. Which of the following findings should the nurse
expect?
A) Painless, bright red vaginal bleeding.
B) Board-like, tender abdomen with dark red bleeding.
C) Increased fetal movement.
D) Soft, non-tender uterus.
Rationale: Abruptio placentae involves the premature separation of the
placenta, causing severe pain and uterine rigidity (board-like).
14. A nurse is teaching the parent of an infant about
preventing SIDS. Which of the following statements by the
parent indicates an understanding of the teaching?
A) "I will place my baby to sleep on her stomach."
B) "I will keep plenty of soft blankets in the crib."
C) "I will place my baby on her back to sleep."
D) "I will use a soft mattress to cushion the baby."
Rationale: The "Back to Sleep" campaign is the primary intervention to
reduce the risk of SIDS.
15. A nurse is assessing a client with Grave's Disease. Which of
the following clinical manifestations is a sign of a "Thyroid
Storm"?
A) Bradycardia and cold intolerance.
B) Hyperpyrexia and extreme tachycardia.
C) Constipation and lethargy.
