ATI FUNDAMENTALS EXAM PREP REVIEW 2026/2027
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Graded
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Questions 1-20)
Question 1 A nurse is caring for a patient who requires wrist restraints to prevent
self-extubation. According to safe restraint practice, how often should the nurse
assess circulation to the restrained extremities?
A. Every 15 minutes B. Every 30 minutes C. Every 1 hour D. Every 2 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Restrained extremities must be assessed for circulation, sensation, and
motion every 15 minutes. Restraints are a last resort after less restrictive alternatives
have failed, and the least restrictive method must be used. Choice B, C, and D are too
infrequent and do not meet safety standards. ATI fundamentals principle: Restraint
assessment every 15 minutes; release restraints and provide range of motion every 2
hours; reassess need for restraints every 4 hours. NCLEX strategy: "Restraints = High-
risk intervention = Frequent assessment = Every 15 minutes."
Question 2 Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with
suspected tuberculosis?
A. Standard precautions only B. Contact precautions C. Droplet precautions D.
Airborne precautions
Correct Answer: D
,Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei (<5 microns) that
remain suspended in air and can be inhaled. Airborne precautions require a
negative-pressure room, N95 respirator or higher-level PPE, and door kept closed.
Choice A is insufficient for TB. Choice B is for contact-transmitted organisms (MRSA,
C. diff). Choice C is for larger droplet transmission (influenza, pertussis). ATI
fundamentals principle: Airborne precautions = TB, measles, varicella, SARS-CoV-2 (in
some settings); remember "AIR" = Airborne = Mask (N95). NCLEX strategy: "TB =
Airborne = Negative pressure + N95."
Question 3 When performing surgical hand antisepsis, the nurse should hold hands:
A. Below the elbows B. Above the elbows C. At heart level D. At waist level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During surgical hand antisepsis, hands should be held above the elbows
to allow water to flow from the cleanest area (hands) to the less clean area (elbows),
preventing contamination of the hands by water running down from the elbows.
Choice A would contaminate the hands. Choice C and D are not relevant to surgical
scrub technique. ATI fundamentals principle: Surgical asepsis requires hands above
elbows throughout the scrub; dry from hands to elbows with sterile towel; don sterile
gown and gloves without contamination. NCLEX strategy: "Surgical scrub = Hands up
= Clean to less clean = Prevent backflow contamination."
Question 4 A nurse is preparing to enter the room of a patient on Contact
Precautions for C. difficile infection. Which PPE is required?
A. Gown and gloves B. Mask and eye protection C. N95 respirator D. Standard
precautions only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contact Precautions require a gown and gloves for room entry and direct
patient contact. C. difficile is transmitted by contact with spores in the environment
,or on surfaces. Choice B is for Droplet or Splash precautions. Choice C is for Airborne
precautions. Choice D is insufficient; Standard precautions are always used but
additional transmission-based precautions are added as needed. ATI fundamentals
principle: Contact precautions = gown + gloves; remove PPE at doorway, perform
hand hygiene; C. diff requires soap and water (not alcohol-based hand rub) because
alcohol does not kill spores. NCLEX strategy: "C. diff = Contact + Soap and water =
Alcohol doesn't kill spores."
Question 5 Which action by the nurse violates HIPAA regulations?
A. Discussing a patient's condition with the patient's spouse who has the patient's
verbal permission B. Reviewing a patient's chart to prepare for the oncoming shift C.
Leaving a computer screen with patient information visible to visitors in the hallway
D. Faxing patient information to the patient's primary care physician with a cover
sheet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Leaving a computer screen with patient information visible to
unauthorized individuals violates HIPAA's Privacy Rule, which requires safeguarding
protected health information (PHI). Choice A is permissible with patient
authorization. Choice B is part of job duties. Choice D is appropriate if sent to a
covered entity for treatment purposes with safeguards. ATI fundamentals principle:
HIPAA requires minimum necessary disclosure, secure workstations, password
protection, and audit trails; breaches can result in civil and criminal penalties. NCLEX
strategy: "HIPAA = Protect PHI = No visible screens = Log off when away = Shred
documents."
Question 6 A nurse is applying a sterile dressing using surgical aseptic technique.
The nurse accidentally touches the inside of the sterile glove with the ungloved hand
while donning. What is the appropriate action?
, A. Continue with the procedure and finish quickly B. Remove the contaminated glove
and begin again with a new sterile glove C. Wipe the contaminated area with alcohol
and continue D. Ask another nurse to finish the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Any break in sterile technique requires stopping and starting over with
new sterile supplies. The inside of the glove is considered non-sterile; touching it
with the ungloved hand contaminates the outside of the glove. Choice A risks
infection. Choice C does not restore sterility. Choice D may be necessary but the
nurse should first correct their own error. ATI fundamentals principle: Sterile field is
sterile only if integrity is maintained; any contamination = start over; 1-inch border
around sterile field is non-sterile; never reach over a sterile field. NCLEX strategy:
"Sterile break = Start over = No exceptions = Patient safety first."
Question 7 Which patient is at highest risk for falls according to the Morse Fall Scale?
A. A patient with a history of falls, using a walker, and on IV therapy B. A patient who
is ambulatory with no assistive devices C. A patient who is bedrest with a Foley
catheter D. A patient who is alert and oriented with normal gait
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Morse Fall Scale assigns points for: history of falls (25 points),
secondary diagnosis (15), ambulatory aid (15 for furniture/walls, 30 for
crutches/cane/walker), IV therapy (20), gait/transferring (0-20), and mental status (0-
15). A score >50 indicates high fall risk. The patient with history of falls, walker use,
and IV therapy accumulates the highest points. Choice B, C, and D have lower scores.
ATI fundamentals principle: Fall risk assessment is required on admission, transfer,
change in condition, and regularly; implement fall prevention interventions for high-
risk patients. NCLEX strategy: "Fall risk = History + Ambulatory aid + IV + Gait
problems + Mental status = High score = High intervention."
COMPLETE | Distinction Level Assignment | Everything
You Need | Nursing Fundamentals | Pass Guaranteed - A+
Graded
Section 1: Safe & Effective Care Environment (Questions 1-20)
Question 1 A nurse is caring for a patient who requires wrist restraints to prevent
self-extubation. According to safe restraint practice, how often should the nurse
assess circulation to the restrained extremities?
A. Every 15 minutes B. Every 30 minutes C. Every 1 hour D. Every 2 hours
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Restrained extremities must be assessed for circulation, sensation, and
motion every 15 minutes. Restraints are a last resort after less restrictive alternatives
have failed, and the least restrictive method must be used. Choice B, C, and D are too
infrequent and do not meet safety standards. ATI fundamentals principle: Restraint
assessment every 15 minutes; release restraints and provide range of motion every 2
hours; reassess need for restraints every 4 hours. NCLEX strategy: "Restraints = High-
risk intervention = Frequent assessment = Every 15 minutes."
Question 2 Which type of isolation precaution is required for a patient with
suspected tuberculosis?
A. Standard precautions only B. Contact precautions C. Droplet precautions D.
Airborne precautions
Correct Answer: D
,Rationale: Tuberculosis is transmitted via airborne droplet nuclei (<5 microns) that
remain suspended in air and can be inhaled. Airborne precautions require a
negative-pressure room, N95 respirator or higher-level PPE, and door kept closed.
Choice A is insufficient for TB. Choice B is for contact-transmitted organisms (MRSA,
C. diff). Choice C is for larger droplet transmission (influenza, pertussis). ATI
fundamentals principle: Airborne precautions = TB, measles, varicella, SARS-CoV-2 (in
some settings); remember "AIR" = Airborne = Mask (N95). NCLEX strategy: "TB =
Airborne = Negative pressure + N95."
Question 3 When performing surgical hand antisepsis, the nurse should hold hands:
A. Below the elbows B. Above the elbows C. At heart level D. At waist level
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: During surgical hand antisepsis, hands should be held above the elbows
to allow water to flow from the cleanest area (hands) to the less clean area (elbows),
preventing contamination of the hands by water running down from the elbows.
Choice A would contaminate the hands. Choice C and D are not relevant to surgical
scrub technique. ATI fundamentals principle: Surgical asepsis requires hands above
elbows throughout the scrub; dry from hands to elbows with sterile towel; don sterile
gown and gloves without contamination. NCLEX strategy: "Surgical scrub = Hands up
= Clean to less clean = Prevent backflow contamination."
Question 4 A nurse is preparing to enter the room of a patient on Contact
Precautions for C. difficile infection. Which PPE is required?
A. Gown and gloves B. Mask and eye protection C. N95 respirator D. Standard
precautions only
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: Contact Precautions require a gown and gloves for room entry and direct
patient contact. C. difficile is transmitted by contact with spores in the environment
,or on surfaces. Choice B is for Droplet or Splash precautions. Choice C is for Airborne
precautions. Choice D is insufficient; Standard precautions are always used but
additional transmission-based precautions are added as needed. ATI fundamentals
principle: Contact precautions = gown + gloves; remove PPE at doorway, perform
hand hygiene; C. diff requires soap and water (not alcohol-based hand rub) because
alcohol does not kill spores. NCLEX strategy: "C. diff = Contact + Soap and water =
Alcohol doesn't kill spores."
Question 5 Which action by the nurse violates HIPAA regulations?
A. Discussing a patient's condition with the patient's spouse who has the patient's
verbal permission B. Reviewing a patient's chart to prepare for the oncoming shift C.
Leaving a computer screen with patient information visible to visitors in the hallway
D. Faxing patient information to the patient's primary care physician with a cover
sheet
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: Leaving a computer screen with patient information visible to
unauthorized individuals violates HIPAA's Privacy Rule, which requires safeguarding
protected health information (PHI). Choice A is permissible with patient
authorization. Choice B is part of job duties. Choice D is appropriate if sent to a
covered entity for treatment purposes with safeguards. ATI fundamentals principle:
HIPAA requires minimum necessary disclosure, secure workstations, password
protection, and audit trails; breaches can result in civil and criminal penalties. NCLEX
strategy: "HIPAA = Protect PHI = No visible screens = Log off when away = Shred
documents."
Question 6 A nurse is applying a sterile dressing using surgical aseptic technique.
The nurse accidentally touches the inside of the sterile glove with the ungloved hand
while donning. What is the appropriate action?
, A. Continue with the procedure and finish quickly B. Remove the contaminated glove
and begin again with a new sterile glove C. Wipe the contaminated area with alcohol
and continue D. Ask another nurse to finish the procedure
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Any break in sterile technique requires stopping and starting over with
new sterile supplies. The inside of the glove is considered non-sterile; touching it
with the ungloved hand contaminates the outside of the glove. Choice A risks
infection. Choice C does not restore sterility. Choice D may be necessary but the
nurse should first correct their own error. ATI fundamentals principle: Sterile field is
sterile only if integrity is maintained; any contamination = start over; 1-inch border
around sterile field is non-sterile; never reach over a sterile field. NCLEX strategy:
"Sterile break = Start over = No exceptions = Patient safety first."
Question 7 Which patient is at highest risk for falls according to the Morse Fall Scale?
A. A patient with a history of falls, using a walker, and on IV therapy B. A patient who
is ambulatory with no assistive devices C. A patient who is bedrest with a Foley
catheter D. A patient who is alert and oriented with normal gait
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: The Morse Fall Scale assigns points for: history of falls (25 points),
secondary diagnosis (15), ambulatory aid (15 for furniture/walls, 30 for
crutches/cane/walker), IV therapy (20), gait/transferring (0-20), and mental status (0-
15). A score >50 indicates high fall risk. The patient with history of falls, walker use,
and IV therapy accumulates the highest points. Choice B, C, and D have lower scores.
ATI fundamentals principle: Fall risk assessment is required on admission, transfer,
change in condition, and regularly; implement fall prevention interventions for high-
risk patients. NCLEX strategy: "Fall risk = History + Ambulatory aid + IV + Gait
problems + Mental status = High score = High intervention."
