NURS 5433 FNP II Final Exam Review
(2026/2027) (PDF) | Family Nursing |
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,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
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1. A 45-year-old patient with hypertension and diabetes presents with a new
onset of dry cough. Which medication is the most likely cause?
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Lisinopril
c) Metformin
d) Amlodipine
Correct answer b) Lisinopril
Expert-Explanation Lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) commonly causes a dry,
persistent cough due to bradykinin accumulation. This side effect is less
common with ARBs. Hydrochlorothiazide can cause electrolyte imbalances,
metformin GI upset, and amlodipine peripheral edema, but not typically a dry
cough.
2. A 30-year-old female presents with dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain.
Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. What is the first-line
treatment?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Doxycycline
d) Ceftriaxone
Correct answer b) Nitrofurantoin
Expert-Explanation For uncomplicated cystitis in women, nitrofurantoin is first-
line due to low resistance and minimal systemic effects. Ciprofloxacin is
reserved for complicated UTIs. Doxycycline covers atypical organisms.
Ceftriaxone is for pyelonephritis or gonorrhea.
3. A patient with heart failure has worsening dyspnea, jugular venous
distention, and bilateral crackles. Which medication should be given first in the
acute setting?
a) Metoprolol
b) Furosemide
c) Spironolactone
d) Digoxin
Correct answer b) Furosemide
, Expert-Explanation Intravenous furosemide rapidly reduces preload and
relieves pulmonary congestion in acute decompensated heart failure. Beta-
blockers (metoprolol) are chronic therapy, not acute. Spironolactone is too slow.
Digoxin helps with rate control but not immediate symptom relief.
4. Which finding on a newborn screening test is most suggestive of cystic
fibrosis?
a) Elevated TSH
b) Elevated immunoreactive trypsinogen
c) Low phenylalanine
d) Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone
Correct answer b) Elevated immunoreactive trypsinogen
*Expert-Explanation Newborn CF screening measures immunoreactive
trypsinogen (IRT); elevated levels prompt sweat chloride testing. Elevated TSH
suggests hypothyroidism. Low phenylalanine is not typical. Elevated 17-
hydroxyprogesterone suggests congenital adrenal hyperplasia.*
5. A 65-year-old man with osteoarthritis asks about OTC pain relief. He has a
history of gastric ulcer. Which is safest?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Naproxen
c) Acetaminophen
d) Aspirin
Correct answer c) Acetaminophen
*Expert-Explanation Acetaminophen has no GI toxicity and is first-line for OA in
patients with ulcer risk. NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen, aspirin) increase GI bleed
risk. For severe pain, consider topical NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors with PPI.*
6. A 22-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation reports palpitations.
ECG shows narrow-complex tachycardia at 180 bpm. What is the safest acute
management?
a) IV adenosine
b) IV amiodarone
c) Synchronized cardioversion
d) Oral metoprolol
Correct answer a) IV adenosine
Expert-Explanation Adenosine is safe in pregnancy for supraventricular
tachycardia due to its ultrashort half-life. Cardioversion is for unstable patients.
Amiodarone is teratogenic. Metoprolol is used for chronic management, not
acute termination.
(2026/2027) (PDF) | Family Nursing |
UTA Questions and Ansẉers with
Expert-Verified Explanation
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
Expert-Verified Explanation
Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
,───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A 45-year-old patient with hypertension and diabetes presents with a new
onset of dry cough. Which medication is the most likely cause?
a) Hydrochlorothiazide
b) Lisinopril
c) Metformin
d) Amlodipine
Correct answer b) Lisinopril
Expert-Explanation Lisinopril (an ACE inhibitor) commonly causes a dry,
persistent cough due to bradykinin accumulation. This side effect is less
common with ARBs. Hydrochlorothiazide can cause electrolyte imbalances,
metformin GI upset, and amlodipine peripheral edema, but not typically a dry
cough.
2. A 30-year-old female presents with dysuria, frequency, and suprapubic pain.
Urinalysis shows positive nitrites and leukocyte esterase. What is the first-line
treatment?
a) Ciprofloxacin
b) Nitrofurantoin
c) Doxycycline
d) Ceftriaxone
Correct answer b) Nitrofurantoin
Expert-Explanation For uncomplicated cystitis in women, nitrofurantoin is first-
line due to low resistance and minimal systemic effects. Ciprofloxacin is
reserved for complicated UTIs. Doxycycline covers atypical organisms.
Ceftriaxone is for pyelonephritis or gonorrhea.
3. A patient with heart failure has worsening dyspnea, jugular venous
distention, and bilateral crackles. Which medication should be given first in the
acute setting?
a) Metoprolol
b) Furosemide
c) Spironolactone
d) Digoxin
Correct answer b) Furosemide
, Expert-Explanation Intravenous furosemide rapidly reduces preload and
relieves pulmonary congestion in acute decompensated heart failure. Beta-
blockers (metoprolol) are chronic therapy, not acute. Spironolactone is too slow.
Digoxin helps with rate control but not immediate symptom relief.
4. Which finding on a newborn screening test is most suggestive of cystic
fibrosis?
a) Elevated TSH
b) Elevated immunoreactive trypsinogen
c) Low phenylalanine
d) Elevated 17-hydroxyprogesterone
Correct answer b) Elevated immunoreactive trypsinogen
*Expert-Explanation Newborn CF screening measures immunoreactive
trypsinogen (IRT); elevated levels prompt sweat chloride testing. Elevated TSH
suggests hypothyroidism. Low phenylalanine is not typical. Elevated 17-
hydroxyprogesterone suggests congenital adrenal hyperplasia.*
5. A 65-year-old man with osteoarthritis asks about OTC pain relief. He has a
history of gastric ulcer. Which is safest?
a) Ibuprofen
b) Naproxen
c) Acetaminophen
d) Aspirin
Correct answer c) Acetaminophen
*Expert-Explanation Acetaminophen has no GI toxicity and is first-line for OA in
patients with ulcer risk. NSAIDs (ibuprofen, naproxen, aspirin) increase GI bleed
risk. For severe pain, consider topical NSAIDs or COX-2 inhibitors with PPI.*
6. A 22-year-old pregnant woman at 28 weeks gestation reports palpitations.
ECG shows narrow-complex tachycardia at 180 bpm. What is the safest acute
management?
a) IV adenosine
b) IV amiodarone
c) Synchronized cardioversion
d) Oral metoprolol
Correct answer a) IV adenosine
Expert-Explanation Adenosine is safe in pregnancy for supraventricular
tachycardia due to its ultrashort half-life. Cardioversion is for unstable patients.
Amiodarone is teratogenic. Metoprolol is used for chronic management, not
acute termination.
