NR 293 Pharmacology Week 8 Study Guide 2026 |Chamberlain College
1. A patient is prescribed Vancomycin for a MRSA infection. Which clinical
manifestation should the nurse prioritize if the medication is infused too
rapidly?
A. Occipital headache and elevated blood pressure
B. Severe hypotension and flushing of the neck and face
C. Generalized urticaria and bronchospasm
D. Cardiac dysrhythmias and hyperkalemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid infusion of Vancomycin can lead to Red Man Syndrome, characterized by
flushing, erythema, and hypotension.
2. A nurse is teaching a patient about their new prescription for Albuterol.
Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
A. I will take this medicine every morning to prevent asthma attacks.
B. This medication will help me sleep better at night.
C. I should use this inhaler immediately if I feel short of breath.
D. I need to rinse my mouth to prevent a fungal infection.
Answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2 agonist (SABA) used as a rescue medication for
acute bronchospasm.
,3. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a patient receiving
Heparin via continuous IV infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count only
D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
Answer: D
Rationale: aPTT is the standard lab used to monitor the therapeutic effect of Heparin.
4. A patient receiving Lispro (Humalog) insulin should be instructed to eat within
how many minutes of administration?
A. 30 to 60 minutes
B. 60 to 90 minutes
C. 5 to 15 minutes
D. 2 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes; patients must eat
immediately to prevent hypoglycemia.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin. Which assessment finding
would require the nurse to hold the medication?
A. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
C. Apical pulse of 52 beats per minute
D. Serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in adults to avoid
worsening bradycardia.
, 6. What is the primary mechanism of action of Spironolactone?
A. Inhibition of the Na+/K+/2Cl- symporter in the loop of Henle
B. Antagonism of aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron
C. Blockage of beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart
D. Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide release
Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking
aldosterone receptors.
7. A patient is prescribed Rifampin for tuberculosis. What side effect should the
nurse warn the patient about?
A. Permanent hearing loss
B. Orange discoloration of urine and tears
C. Severe muscle pain and weakness
D. Development of a butterfly rash on the face
Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes a harmless orange-red discoloration of bodily
fluids.
8. Which medication is considered the antidote for an overdose of Warfarin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine Sulfate
Answer: A
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antagonist used to reverse the effects of Warfarin.
1. A patient is prescribed Vancomycin for a MRSA infection. Which clinical
manifestation should the nurse prioritize if the medication is infused too
rapidly?
A. Occipital headache and elevated blood pressure
B. Severe hypotension and flushing of the neck and face
C. Generalized urticaria and bronchospasm
D. Cardiac dysrhythmias and hyperkalemia
Answer: B
Rationale: Rapid infusion of Vancomycin can lead to Red Man Syndrome, characterized by
flushing, erythema, and hypotension.
2. A nurse is teaching a patient about their new prescription for Albuterol.
Which statement by the patient indicates understanding?
A. I will take this medicine every morning to prevent asthma attacks.
B. This medication will help me sleep better at night.
C. I should use this inhaler immediately if I feel short of breath.
D. I need to rinse my mouth to prevent a fungal infection.
Answer: C
Rationale: Albuterol is a short-acting beta2 agonist (SABA) used as a rescue medication for
acute bronchospasm.
,3. Which laboratory value is most important to monitor in a patient receiving
Heparin via continuous IV infusion?
A. Prothrombin Time (PT)
B. International Normalized Ratio (INR)
C. Platelet count only
D. Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT)
Answer: D
Rationale: aPTT is the standard lab used to monitor the therapeutic effect of Heparin.
4. A patient receiving Lispro (Humalog) insulin should be instructed to eat within
how many minutes of administration?
A. 30 to 60 minutes
B. 60 to 90 minutes
C. 5 to 15 minutes
D. 2 hours
Answer: C
Rationale: Lispro is a rapid-acting insulin with an onset of 15 minutes; patients must eat
immediately to prevent hypoglycemia.
5. The nurse is preparing to administer Digoxin. Which assessment finding
would require the nurse to hold the medication?
A. Respiratory rate of 22 breaths per minute
B. Blood pressure of 140/90 mmHg
C. Apical pulse of 52 beats per minute
D. Serum potassium level of 4.5 mEq/L
Answer: C
Rationale: Digoxin should be held if the apical pulse is less than 60 bpm in adults to avoid
worsening bradycardia.
, 6. What is the primary mechanism of action of Spironolactone?
A. Inhibition of the Na+/K+/2Cl- symporter in the loop of Henle
B. Antagonism of aldosterone receptors in the distal nephron
C. Blockage of beta-1 adrenergic receptors in the heart
D. Stimulation of atrial natriuretic peptide release
Answer: B
Rationale: Spironolactone is a potassium-sparing diuretic that works by blocking
aldosterone receptors.
7. A patient is prescribed Rifampin for tuberculosis. What side effect should the
nurse warn the patient about?
A. Permanent hearing loss
B. Orange discoloration of urine and tears
C. Severe muscle pain and weakness
D. Development of a butterfly rash on the face
Answer: B
Rationale: Rifampin commonly causes a harmless orange-red discoloration of bodily
fluids.
8. Which medication is considered the antidote for an overdose of Warfarin?
A. Vitamin K
B. Naloxone
C. Flumazenil
D. Protamine Sulfate
Answer: A
Rationale: Vitamin K is the antagonist used to reverse the effects of Warfarin.
