ABRET EEG Exam 2026/2027 Actual Exam | Real Exam
Questions & 100% Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales |
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1. In the International 10-20 System, the electrode positioned at the midline, halfway between Fpz and
Oz, is:
A) Pz
B) Fz
C) Cz
D) C3
Answer: C) Cz – Explanation: The 10-20 system uses standardized landmarks. Cz (central midline) is
located at the intersection of the nasion-inion line and the preauricular line. Fz is the frontal midline, Pz
is the parietal midline, and C3 is left central.
2. The standard paper speed for a routine EEG is:
A) 15 mm/second
B) 30 mm/second
C) 60 mm/second
D) 10 mm/second
Answer: B) 30 mm/second – Explanation: The standard EEG paper speed is 30 mm/sec. This allows
adequate visualization of waveforms (e.g., 10-second epochs per page). Faster speeds spread out
waveforms, while slower speeds compress them.
3. The normal adult alpha rhythm frequency range is:
A) 2-4 Hz
B) 4-7 Hz
C) 8-13 Hz
D) 13-30 Hz
Answer: C) 8-13 Hz – Explanation: The alpha rhythm (8-13 Hz) is dominant in posterior head regions
during relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed. Delta is 0.5-4 Hz, theta is 4-7 Hz, and beta is 13-30 Hz.
,4. Alpha rhythm is most prominent when:
A) Eyes are open
B) The patient is hyperventilating
C) Eyes are closed and the patient is relaxed
D) The patient is sleeping
Answer: C) Eyes are closed and the patient is relaxed – Explanation: Alpha rhythm attenuates (blocks)
with eye opening and mental effort. It is strongest in relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed, a
phenomenon known as the Berger effect.
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate test for determining cerebral dominance?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) EEG
D) Intracarotid sodium amytal (Wada)
Answer: D) Intracarotid sodium amytal (Wada) – Explanation: The Wada test involves anesthetizing one
hemisphere to determine language dominance prior to epilepsy surgery. EEG, MRI, and CT cannot
definitively determine cerebral dominance.
6. The central sulcus is the anterior boundary of which lobe?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Parietal lobe
C) Temporal lobe
D) Occipital lobe
Answer: B) Parietal lobe – Explanation: The central sulcus (Rolandic fissure) separates the frontal lobe
(primary motor cortex) anteriorly from the parietal lobe (primary sensory cortex) posteriorly.
7. Which cranial nerves are involved with eye movement?
A) I, II and III
B) III, IV and VI
,C) II, III and IV
D) V, VII and VIII
Answer: B) III, IV and VI – Explanation: Oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves control
eye movements. The optic nerve (II) is for vision, not movement.
8. Which artery is formed by the joining of the vertebral arteries?
A) Internal carotid
B) Middle cerebral
C) Basilar
D) Anterior cerebral
Answer: C) Basilar – Explanation: The two vertebral arteries join at the level of the pons to form the
basilar artery, which supplies the brainstem and cerebellum.
9. The inability to perform purposeful movement though no muscular or sensory disturbance is present
is called:
A) Aphasia
B) Apraxia
C) Agnosia
D) Ataxia
Answer: B) Apraxia – Explanation: Apraxia is a disorder of skilled movement planning, not due to
weakness or sensory loss. Ataxia is incoordination; aphasia is language; agnosia is recognition.
10. PLEDs (Periodic Lateralized Epileptiform Discharges) are most often associated with:
A) Migraine
B) Acute structural lesions such as stroke or tumor
C) Sleep disorders
D) Normal variant
Answer: B) Acute structural lesions such as stroke or tumor – Explanation: PLEDs are associated with
acute focal lesions, most commonly ischemic stroke. They may also be seen with tumors, HSV
encephalitis, or other acute cerebral injuries.
, 11. The EEG is most useful in evaluating which of the following?
A) Cerebral trauma
B) Brain tumors
C) Seizure disorders
D) Cerebrovascular disease
Answer: C) Seizure disorders – Explanation: EEG is the primary diagnostic test for epilepsy and seizure
disorders. While it may show abnormalities in tumors or stroke, it is not the first-line test for those
conditions.
12. Which of the following devices measures electrode resistance?
A) Ohmmeter
B) Voltmeter
C) Ammeter
D) Impedance meter
Answer: A) Ohmmeter – Explanation: An ohmmeter measures resistance (ohms). Impedance meters
measure opposition to alternating current, but the question specifically asks for resistance
measurement.
13. The opposition to the flow of alternating current is known as:
A) Resistance
B) Impedance
C) Capacitance
D) Inductance
Answer: B) Impedance – Explanation: Impedance (Z) is the total opposition to alternating current,
including resistance (R) and reactance (capacitive/inductive). Resistance is only for direct current.
14. Signals common to both inputs of a differential amplifier with like frequency, amplitude and phase
are:
A) Amplified
B) Canceled
C) Inverted
Questions & 100% Correct Answers with Detailed Rationales |
EEG Exam Prep | Pass Guaranteed – A+ Graded
1. In the International 10-20 System, the electrode positioned at the midline, halfway between Fpz and
Oz, is:
A) Pz
B) Fz
C) Cz
D) C3
Answer: C) Cz – Explanation: The 10-20 system uses standardized landmarks. Cz (central midline) is
located at the intersection of the nasion-inion line and the preauricular line. Fz is the frontal midline, Pz
is the parietal midline, and C3 is left central.
2. The standard paper speed for a routine EEG is:
A) 15 mm/second
B) 30 mm/second
C) 60 mm/second
D) 10 mm/second
Answer: B) 30 mm/second – Explanation: The standard EEG paper speed is 30 mm/sec. This allows
adequate visualization of waveforms (e.g., 10-second epochs per page). Faster speeds spread out
waveforms, while slower speeds compress them.
3. The normal adult alpha rhythm frequency range is:
A) 2-4 Hz
B) 4-7 Hz
C) 8-13 Hz
D) 13-30 Hz
Answer: C) 8-13 Hz – Explanation: The alpha rhythm (8-13 Hz) is dominant in posterior head regions
during relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed. Delta is 0.5-4 Hz, theta is 4-7 Hz, and beta is 13-30 Hz.
,4. Alpha rhythm is most prominent when:
A) Eyes are open
B) The patient is hyperventilating
C) Eyes are closed and the patient is relaxed
D) The patient is sleeping
Answer: C) Eyes are closed and the patient is relaxed – Explanation: Alpha rhythm attenuates (blocks)
with eye opening and mental effort. It is strongest in relaxed wakefulness with eyes closed, a
phenomenon known as the Berger effect.
5. Which of the following is the most appropriate test for determining cerebral dominance?
A) MRI
B) CT scan
C) EEG
D) Intracarotid sodium amytal (Wada)
Answer: D) Intracarotid sodium amytal (Wada) – Explanation: The Wada test involves anesthetizing one
hemisphere to determine language dominance prior to epilepsy surgery. EEG, MRI, and CT cannot
definitively determine cerebral dominance.
6. The central sulcus is the anterior boundary of which lobe?
A) Frontal lobe
B) Parietal lobe
C) Temporal lobe
D) Occipital lobe
Answer: B) Parietal lobe – Explanation: The central sulcus (Rolandic fissure) separates the frontal lobe
(primary motor cortex) anteriorly from the parietal lobe (primary sensory cortex) posteriorly.
7. Which cranial nerves are involved with eye movement?
A) I, II and III
B) III, IV and VI
,C) II, III and IV
D) V, VII and VIII
Answer: B) III, IV and VI – Explanation: Oculomotor (III), trochlear (IV), and abducens (VI) nerves control
eye movements. The optic nerve (II) is for vision, not movement.
8. Which artery is formed by the joining of the vertebral arteries?
A) Internal carotid
B) Middle cerebral
C) Basilar
D) Anterior cerebral
Answer: C) Basilar – Explanation: The two vertebral arteries join at the level of the pons to form the
basilar artery, which supplies the brainstem and cerebellum.
9. The inability to perform purposeful movement though no muscular or sensory disturbance is present
is called:
A) Aphasia
B) Apraxia
C) Agnosia
D) Ataxia
Answer: B) Apraxia – Explanation: Apraxia is a disorder of skilled movement planning, not due to
weakness or sensory loss. Ataxia is incoordination; aphasia is language; agnosia is recognition.
10. PLEDs (Periodic Lateralized Epileptiform Discharges) are most often associated with:
A) Migraine
B) Acute structural lesions such as stroke or tumor
C) Sleep disorders
D) Normal variant
Answer: B) Acute structural lesions such as stroke or tumor – Explanation: PLEDs are associated with
acute focal lesions, most commonly ischemic stroke. They may also be seen with tumors, HSV
encephalitis, or other acute cerebral injuries.
, 11. The EEG is most useful in evaluating which of the following?
A) Cerebral trauma
B) Brain tumors
C) Seizure disorders
D) Cerebrovascular disease
Answer: C) Seizure disorders – Explanation: EEG is the primary diagnostic test for epilepsy and seizure
disorders. While it may show abnormalities in tumors or stroke, it is not the first-line test for those
conditions.
12. Which of the following devices measures electrode resistance?
A) Ohmmeter
B) Voltmeter
C) Ammeter
D) Impedance meter
Answer: A) Ohmmeter – Explanation: An ohmmeter measures resistance (ohms). Impedance meters
measure opposition to alternating current, but the question specifically asks for resistance
measurement.
13. The opposition to the flow of alternating current is known as:
A) Resistance
B) Impedance
C) Capacitance
D) Inductance
Answer: B) Impedance – Explanation: Impedance (Z) is the total opposition to alternating current,
including resistance (R) and reactance (capacitive/inductive). Resistance is only for direct current.
14. Signals common to both inputs of a differential amplifier with like frequency, amplitude and phase
are:
A) Amplified
B) Canceled
C) Inverted
