2024 Proctored Exam with NGN 70
Questions and Ansẉers with
Expert-Verified Explanation 2026 update
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70 Questions and Ansẉers
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1. A nurse is caring for a client at 38 weeks gestation who reports a gush of
fluid from the vagina. Which of the following actions should the nurse take
first?
A. Assess the fluid with nitrazine paper
B. Check the fetal heart rate
C. Measure maternal vital signs
D. Obtain a sterile speculum examination
Correct answer B
Expert-Explanation The priority is to assess fetal well-being after possible
rupture of membranes. Cord prolapse is a risk with ROM, so immediate fetal
heart rate auscultation or continuous monitoring is essential. Nitrazine testing
(A) confirms fluid is amniotic, but it is not first. Vital signs (C) are important for
infection but not the priority. Speculum exam (D) may follow after fetal status is
reassuring.
2. A nurse is administering magnesium sulfate to a client with severe
preeclampsia. Which finding indicates magnesium toxicity?
A. Respiratory rate of 14/min
B. Deep tendon reflexes 2+
C. Urinary output 35 mL/hr
D. Absent patellar reflexes
Correct answer D
Expert-Explanation Magnesium toxicity presents with loss of deep tendon
reflexes, followed by respiratory depression and cardiac arrest. Normal reflexes
are 2+; absent reflexes (D) are a critical warning. Respiratory rate below 12/min
is concerning, but 14/min is normal. Urine output should remain >30 mL/hr; 35
mL/hr is acceptable.
3. A newborn has Apgar scores of 6 at 1 minute and 8 at 5 minutes. Which of
the following should the nurse do first?
A. Initiate chest compressions
B. Begin positive pressure ventilation
, C. Continue routine care with ongoing evaluation
D. Administer epinephrine via endotracheal tube
Correct answer C
Expert-Explanation An Apgar of 6 indicates moderate difficulty, but
improvement to 8 by 5 minutes suggests effective transition. Routine care
includes drying, warming, and stimulating, with reassessment. Positive pressure
ventilation is typically for scores <5 at 1 minute. Chest compressions and
epinephrine are for severe depression.
4. A client at 32 weeks gestation with preterm labor is prescribed
betamethasone. The client asks why this medication is given. What is the
nurse’s best response?
A. It stops contractions to prevent preterm birth
B. It improves fetal lung maturity if birth occurs early
C. It treats infection in the amniotic fluid
D. It lowers maternal blood pressure to prevent seizures
Correct answer B
Expert-Explanation Betamethasone is a corticosteroid that accelerates fetal
lung surfactant production, reducing respiratory distress syndrome,
intraventricular hemorrhage, and neonatal death. It does not stop labor
(tocolytics do that). It is not an antibiotic or antihypertensive.
5. A nurse is caring for a postpartum client who has a deep vein thrombosis.
Which of the following is a priority finding?
A. Calf pain and swelling
B. Sudden onset of dyspnea and chest pain
C. Redness and warmth in the affected leg
D. Positive Homans’ sign
Correct answer B
Expert-Explanation Sudden dyspnea and chest pain suggest pulmonary
embolism, a life-threatening complication of DVT. This requires immediate
intervention (oxygen, notify provider). Calf pain, swelling, redness, and
Homans’ sign are signs of DVT itself but not as urgent as possible PE.
6. A nurse is assessing a newborn for hypoglycemia. Which finding is most
indicative?
A. Respiratory rate of 50/min
B. Jitteriness and poor feeding
C. Heart rate of 160/min
D. Acrocyanosis