WGU D115 - OA readiness EXAM || MOST RECENT
EXAM 2026-2027 ACTUAL COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
SUCCESS!! NEWEST EXAM | JUST RELEASED!!
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is caring for a
patient complaining of pelvic pain. Assessment findings
include a fever of 39°C (102.2° F), vaginal discharge, low
bilateral abdominal pain that is dull and steady that developed
during menstruation and worsens with walking, and dysuria.
Lab studies include a positive finding for chlamydia.
Which diagnosis should the APRN assign to this patient
based on these findings? A) Vulvodynia
B) Bartholinitis
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Vaginitis - ANSWER -C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
An adolescent male is suffering from severe, sudden pain in
his genital region
during football practice. He is embarrassed to seek
emergency treatment.
However, he is finding the pain unbearable. His coach
appropriately
recommends he seek emergency
treatment.
,What is a plausible cause of
the pain?
A) Prostate
hyperplasia
B)
Hydrocele
C) Testicular
torsion
D) Cryptorchidism - ANSWER -C)
Testicular torsion
The APN is evaluating a patient who has pelvic organ prolapse.
Which of the following treatment options does the APN
consider? Select all that apply.
A) Pessary
B) Instruction on kegel exercises
C) Estrogen therapy
D) Referral for surgical repair
E) Instruction on "bearing down" exercises - ANSWER -A)
Pessary
B) Instruction on kegel exercises
C) Estrogen therapy
D) Referral for surgical repair
Treatment for pelvic organ prolapse includes use of a pessary,
instruction on kegel exercises to strengthen pelvic floor
muscles, estrogen therapy, or surgical repair. Bearing down
exercises would worsen pelvic prolapse.
,The growth of benign uterine tumors, such as leiomyomas, is
influenced by which hormones? Select all that apply.
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
E) Growth factors - ANSWER -A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
E) Growth factors
The growth of uterine leiomyomas is considered to be
influenced by estrogen (E2), growth hormone, and
progesterone.
The APN is evaluating a client for compartment IV primary
amenorrhea. Which assessments would the APN perform as
priorities? Select all that apply.
A) Weight and BMI
B) Signs of systemic infection
C) Stress self-assessment questionnaire
D) Genetic family history
E) Presence of secondary sex characteristics - ANSWER -A)
Weight and BMI
B) Signs of systemic infection
C) Stress self-assessment questionnaire
E) Presence of secondary sex characteristics
Primary amenorrhea is the absence of menarche by the age of
13 without the development of secondary sex characteristics or
by age 15 regardless of
, secondary sex characteristics. Compartment IV disorders
include disorders of
the CNS, malnutrition, stress,
and TBI.
What is the most common cause of orchitis in postpubertal
boys?
A) HSV
B) E. Coli
C) Mumps
D) CMV - ANSWER -C) Mumps
Orchitis is an inflammation of one or both testicles. Bacterial or
viral infections can cause orchitis, or the cause can be
unknown. Orchitis is most often the result of a bacterial
infection, such as a sexually transmitted infection (STI). In
some cases, the mumps virus can cause orchitis
The APN is providing education to a community men's group
on symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The APN
relates that the most common symptoms are a result of which
pathophysiologic condition?
A) Infection of the prostate
B) Obstruction of the urethra
C) Ischemia of the urethra
D) Compression of the urethra - ANSWER -D) Compression of
the urethra The symptoms of BPH are caused by hyperplasia
of the prostatic tissues which leads to compression of the
urethra.
EXAM 2026-2027 ACTUAL COMPLETE REAL EXAM
QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS (VERIFIED
ANSWERS) ALREADY GRADED A+ | GUARANTEED
SUCCESS!! NEWEST EXAM | JUST RELEASED!!
An advanced practice registered nurse (APRN) is caring for a
patient complaining of pelvic pain. Assessment findings
include a fever of 39°C (102.2° F), vaginal discharge, low
bilateral abdominal pain that is dull and steady that developed
during menstruation and worsens with walking, and dysuria.
Lab studies include a positive finding for chlamydia.
Which diagnosis should the APRN assign to this patient
based on these findings? A) Vulvodynia
B) Bartholinitis
C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
D) Vaginitis - ANSWER -C) Pelvic inflammatory disease
An adolescent male is suffering from severe, sudden pain in
his genital region
during football practice. He is embarrassed to seek
emergency treatment.
However, he is finding the pain unbearable. His coach
appropriately
recommends he seek emergency
treatment.
,What is a plausible cause of
the pain?
A) Prostate
hyperplasia
B)
Hydrocele
C) Testicular
torsion
D) Cryptorchidism - ANSWER -C)
Testicular torsion
The APN is evaluating a patient who has pelvic organ prolapse.
Which of the following treatment options does the APN
consider? Select all that apply.
A) Pessary
B) Instruction on kegel exercises
C) Estrogen therapy
D) Referral for surgical repair
E) Instruction on "bearing down" exercises - ANSWER -A)
Pessary
B) Instruction on kegel exercises
C) Estrogen therapy
D) Referral for surgical repair
Treatment for pelvic organ prolapse includes use of a pessary,
instruction on kegel exercises to strengthen pelvic floor
muscles, estrogen therapy, or surgical repair. Bearing down
exercises would worsen pelvic prolapse.
,The growth of benign uterine tumors, such as leiomyomas, is
influenced by which hormones? Select all that apply.
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Luteinizing hormone
D) Gonadotropin-stimulating hormone
E) Growth factors - ANSWER -A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
E) Growth factors
The growth of uterine leiomyomas is considered to be
influenced by estrogen (E2), growth hormone, and
progesterone.
The APN is evaluating a client for compartment IV primary
amenorrhea. Which assessments would the APN perform as
priorities? Select all that apply.
A) Weight and BMI
B) Signs of systemic infection
C) Stress self-assessment questionnaire
D) Genetic family history
E) Presence of secondary sex characteristics - ANSWER -A)
Weight and BMI
B) Signs of systemic infection
C) Stress self-assessment questionnaire
E) Presence of secondary sex characteristics
Primary amenorrhea is the absence of menarche by the age of
13 without the development of secondary sex characteristics or
by age 15 regardless of
, secondary sex characteristics. Compartment IV disorders
include disorders of
the CNS, malnutrition, stress,
and TBI.
What is the most common cause of orchitis in postpubertal
boys?
A) HSV
B) E. Coli
C) Mumps
D) CMV - ANSWER -C) Mumps
Orchitis is an inflammation of one or both testicles. Bacterial or
viral infections can cause orchitis, or the cause can be
unknown. Orchitis is most often the result of a bacterial
infection, such as a sexually transmitted infection (STI). In
some cases, the mumps virus can cause orchitis
The APN is providing education to a community men's group
on symptoms of benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH). The APN
relates that the most common symptoms are a result of which
pathophysiologic condition?
A) Infection of the prostate
B) Obstruction of the urethra
C) Ischemia of the urethra
D) Compression of the urethra - ANSWER -D) Compression of
the urethra The symptoms of BPH are caused by hyperplasia
of the prostatic tissues which leads to compression of the
urethra.
