AHA ACLS Provider Exam ACTUAL
EXAM 2026/2027 | AHA ACLS
Provider | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: PRACTICE TEST BANK (100 Questions – Simulated Exam Format)
BLS/High-Quality CPR & AED Use (Questions 1-15)
Q1: A 58-year-old man collapses in the hospital lobby. You arrive to find him unresponsive, not
breathing, and pulseless. The AED arrives 30 seconds later. What is your immediate next action?
A. Attach the AED immediately and analyze rhythm
B. Begin high-quality CPR with a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2
C. Check for a pulse for 10 seconds
D. Give 2 rescue breaths before starting compressions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per 2020 AHA Guidelines, for adult cardiac arrest, immediately begin high-quality CPR (30:2
ratio) while the defibrillator is being prepared. Do not delay CPR for rhythm analysis. The AED should be
attached without interrupting compressions for more than 10 seconds. Option A delays critical CPR;
Option C is incorrect as pulse check should be ≤10 seconds but CPR should start immediately if no pulse;
Option D is not recommended for adults.
Q2: During CPR on an adult, which compression parameters are CORRECT?
A. Rate 80-100/min, depth at least 1.5 inches, full recoil
B. Rate 100-120/min, depth at least 2 inches (5 cm), allow full chest recoil
C. Rate 120-140/min, depth 2-2.4 inches, minimize interruptions
D. Rate 100-120/min, depth 1.5-2 inches, lean on chest between compressions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 2020 AHA Guidelines specify compressions at 100-120/min, depth at least 2 inches (5 cm) but
not exceeding 2.4 inches (6 cm), with complete chest recoil and minimal interruptions. Option A has
insufficient rate and depth; Option C exceeds recommended rate; Option D has insufficient depth and
incorrect technique (leaning prevents recoil).
,Q3: You are performing CPR with an advanced airway (ET tube) in place. How should ventilations be
delivered?
A. 1 breath every 6-8 seconds (8-10 breaths/min) without pausing compressions
B. 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio
C. 1 breath every 3-5 seconds (12-20 breaths/min) with pauses for breaths
D. 2 breaths every 30 compressions with complete pause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: With an advanced airway, deliver 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) without
interrupting compressions. The 30:2 ratio (Option B) is for CPR without an advanced airway. Options C
and D describe incorrect rates and unnecessary compression interruptions.
Q4: [SATA - Select All That Apply] Which are components of high-quality CPR?
A. Compression rate of 100-120 per minute
B. Compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm)
C. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds
D. Allowing complete chest recoil between compressions
E. Leaning on the chest between compressions to maintain position
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires 100-120/min rate, ≥2 inch depth, <10 second interruptions, and full
chest recoil. Leaning on the chest (E) prevents recoil and reduces coronary perfusion pressure.
Q5: An AED advises "No Shock Advised." What is your next action?
A. Check for a pulse; if none, continue CPR
B. Wait for the AED to reanalyze automatically
C. Immediately resume CPR beginning with ventilations
D. Remove the AED pads and reapply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: "No Shock Advised" indicates a non-shockable rhythm (asystole or PEA). Check for a pulse; if
no pulse, resume CPR immediately starting with compressions (C is incorrect because compressions, not
ventilations, come first). Do not wait (B) or reposition pads unnecessarily (D).
Q6: During resuscitation, the team leader notices the compressor's rate slowing to 80/min. What is the
appropriate intervention?
A. Wait until the 2-minute cycle ends to switch compressors
B. Immediately call for compressor rotation and provide feedback
C. Increase the ventilation rate to compensate
D. Administer epinephrine to improve cardiac output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Compressor fatigue occurs within minutes even when the compressor feels fine. The team
leader should provide real-time feedback and rotate compressors every 2 minutes (or sooner if quality
,declines) to maintain 100-120/min rate. Waiting (A) allows poor-quality CPR; Options C and D do not
address the compression problem.
Q7: A patient has return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after VF arrest. When should the first post-
arrest rhythm and pulse check occur?
A. Immediately after the shock that converted the rhythm
B. After 2 minutes of CPR following the last rhythm check
C. Every 30 seconds during CPR
D. Only when the patient shows signs of consciousness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a shock or when a rhythm change is noted, resume CPR immediately for 2 minutes
before checking rhythm/pulse. This prevents the "hands-off" interval that reduces coronary perfusion
pressure. Immediate checks (A, C) interrupt critical perfusion; Option D delays necessary assessment.
Q8: Which is the preferred method for confirming ET tube placement during cardiac arrest?
A. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds
B. Continuous waveform capnography (ETCO2)
C. Chest rise visualization
D. Tube condensation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Waveform capnography is the most reliable method for confirming ET tube placement and
monitoring CPR quality (ETCO2 should be ≥10 mmHg). While auscultation (A) is used, it is less reliable.
Chest rise (C) and condensation (D) are insufficient confirmation methods.
Q9: [Medication Math] You need to give epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO. The concentration available is 1:10,000
(1 mg in 10 mL). What volume should you administer?
A. 0.1 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 10 mL
D. 100 mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: 1:10,000 concentration = 1 mg/10 mL. To give 1 mg, administer 10 mL. Option A would give
0.01 mg; Option B would give 0.1 mg; Option D would be a massive overdose.
Q10: During CPR, you detect a carotid pulse with compressions but no pulse without compressions.
What does this indicate?
A. ROSC has occurred
B. Pseudo-EMT (mechanical capture without electrical capture)
C. The patient requires immediate defibrillation
D. Effective CPR generating artificial perfusion
, Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Palpable pulse during compressions with no pulse during pauses indicates effective CPR
generating forward blood flow, NOT ROSC. This is why we minimize interruptions. ROSC (A) would show
sustained pulse without compressions.
Q11: [SATA] Which factors reduce coronary perfusion pressure during CPR?
A. Lean on chest between compressions
B. Hyperventilation (>10 breaths/min)
C. Frequent rhythm/pulse checks
D. Incomplete chest recoil
E. Shallow compressions (<2 inches)
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: All listed factors reduce coronary perfusion pressure. Leaning (A) prevents diastolic filling;
hyperventilation (B) increases intrathoracic pressure; interruptions (C) stop perfusion; incomplete recoil
(D) reduces venous return; shallow compressions (E) generate inadequate pressure.
Q12: The AED detects a shockable rhythm and charges. What is the correct next step?
A. Clear the patient and deliver shock immediately
B. Resume CPR for 30 seconds then shock
C. Check for a pulse before shocking
D. Administer epinephrine first, then shock
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For shockable rhythms (VF/pVT), deliver shock as soon as the defibrillator is charged and the
patient is cleared (ensuring no one is touching the patient). Do not delay for CPR (B), pulse check (C), or
medications (D).
Q13: You are alone and find an unresponsive adult who is not breathing normally. You have activated
the emergency response system. What is your next action?
A. Leave to get an AED immediately
B. Begin CPR with compressions
C. Give 2 rescue breaths first
D. Check for a pulse for 10 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For lay rescuers, if an adult is unresponsive and not breathing normally, begin CPR starting
with compressions (C-A-B sequence). Do not delay for pulse check if not trained (D) or for breaths (C). If
alone without phone, leave to activate EMS and get AED after 2 minutes of CPR (adults).
Q14: Which statement about AED use in children is CORRECT?
A. Adult AED pads should never be used on children
B. Use pediatric dose attenuator or pediatric pads for children <8 years
EXAM 2026/2027 | AHA ACLS
Provider | Verified Q&A | Pass
Guaranteed - A+ Graded
SECTION 1: PRACTICE TEST BANK (100 Questions – Simulated Exam Format)
BLS/High-Quality CPR & AED Use (Questions 1-15)
Q1: A 58-year-old man collapses in the hospital lobby. You arrive to find him unresponsive, not
breathing, and pulseless. The AED arrives 30 seconds later. What is your immediate next action?
A. Attach the AED immediately and analyze rhythm
B. Begin high-quality CPR with a compression-to-ventilation ratio of 30:2
C. Check for a pulse for 10 seconds
D. Give 2 rescue breaths before starting compressions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Per 2020 AHA Guidelines, for adult cardiac arrest, immediately begin high-quality CPR (30:2
ratio) while the defibrillator is being prepared. Do not delay CPR for rhythm analysis. The AED should be
attached without interrupting compressions for more than 10 seconds. Option A delays critical CPR;
Option C is incorrect as pulse check should be ≤10 seconds but CPR should start immediately if no pulse;
Option D is not recommended for adults.
Q2: During CPR on an adult, which compression parameters are CORRECT?
A. Rate 80-100/min, depth at least 1.5 inches, full recoil
B. Rate 100-120/min, depth at least 2 inches (5 cm), allow full chest recoil
C. Rate 120-140/min, depth 2-2.4 inches, minimize interruptions
D. Rate 100-120/min, depth 1.5-2 inches, lean on chest between compressions
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: 2020 AHA Guidelines specify compressions at 100-120/min, depth at least 2 inches (5 cm) but
not exceeding 2.4 inches (6 cm), with complete chest recoil and minimal interruptions. Option A has
insufficient rate and depth; Option C exceeds recommended rate; Option D has insufficient depth and
incorrect technique (leaning prevents recoil).
,Q3: You are performing CPR with an advanced airway (ET tube) in place. How should ventilations be
delivered?
A. 1 breath every 6-8 seconds (8-10 breaths/min) without pausing compressions
B. 30:2 compression-to-ventilation ratio
C. 1 breath every 3-5 seconds (12-20 breaths/min) with pauses for breaths
D. 2 breaths every 30 compressions with complete pause
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: With an advanced airway, deliver 1 breath every 6 seconds (10 breaths/min) without
interrupting compressions. The 30:2 ratio (Option B) is for CPR without an advanced airway. Options C
and D describe incorrect rates and unnecessary compression interruptions.
Q4: [SATA - Select All That Apply] Which are components of high-quality CPR?
A. Compression rate of 100-120 per minute
B. Compression depth of at least 2 inches (5 cm)
C. Minimizing interruptions to less than 10 seconds
D. Allowing complete chest recoil between compressions
E. Leaning on the chest between compressions to maintain position
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D
Rationale: High-quality CPR requires 100-120/min rate, ≥2 inch depth, <10 second interruptions, and full
chest recoil. Leaning on the chest (E) prevents recoil and reduces coronary perfusion pressure.
Q5: An AED advises "No Shock Advised." What is your next action?
A. Check for a pulse; if none, continue CPR
B. Wait for the AED to reanalyze automatically
C. Immediately resume CPR beginning with ventilations
D. Remove the AED pads and reapply
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: "No Shock Advised" indicates a non-shockable rhythm (asystole or PEA). Check for a pulse; if
no pulse, resume CPR immediately starting with compressions (C is incorrect because compressions, not
ventilations, come first). Do not wait (B) or reposition pads unnecessarily (D).
Q6: During resuscitation, the team leader notices the compressor's rate slowing to 80/min. What is the
appropriate intervention?
A. Wait until the 2-minute cycle ends to switch compressors
B. Immediately call for compressor rotation and provide feedback
C. Increase the ventilation rate to compensate
D. Administer epinephrine to improve cardiac output
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Compressor fatigue occurs within minutes even when the compressor feels fine. The team
leader should provide real-time feedback and rotate compressors every 2 minutes (or sooner if quality
,declines) to maintain 100-120/min rate. Waiting (A) allows poor-quality CPR; Options C and D do not
address the compression problem.
Q7: A patient has return of spontaneous circulation (ROSC) after VF arrest. When should the first post-
arrest rhythm and pulse check occur?
A. Immediately after the shock that converted the rhythm
B. After 2 minutes of CPR following the last rhythm check
C. Every 30 seconds during CPR
D. Only when the patient shows signs of consciousness
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: After a shock or when a rhythm change is noted, resume CPR immediately for 2 minutes
before checking rhythm/pulse. This prevents the "hands-off" interval that reduces coronary perfusion
pressure. Immediate checks (A, C) interrupt critical perfusion; Option D delays necessary assessment.
Q8: Which is the preferred method for confirming ET tube placement during cardiac arrest?
A. Auscultation of bilateral breath sounds
B. Continuous waveform capnography (ETCO2)
C. Chest rise visualization
D. Tube condensation
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Waveform capnography is the most reliable method for confirming ET tube placement and
monitoring CPR quality (ETCO2 should be ≥10 mmHg). While auscultation (A) is used, it is less reliable.
Chest rise (C) and condensation (D) are insufficient confirmation methods.
Q9: [Medication Math] You need to give epinephrine 1 mg IV/IO. The concentration available is 1:10,000
(1 mg in 10 mL). What volume should you administer?
A. 0.1 mL
B. 1 mL
C. 10 mL
D. 100 mL
Correct Answer: C
Rationale: 1:10,000 concentration = 1 mg/10 mL. To give 1 mg, administer 10 mL. Option A would give
0.01 mg; Option B would give 0.1 mg; Option D would be a massive overdose.
Q10: During CPR, you detect a carotid pulse with compressions but no pulse without compressions.
What does this indicate?
A. ROSC has occurred
B. Pseudo-EMT (mechanical capture without electrical capture)
C. The patient requires immediate defibrillation
D. Effective CPR generating artificial perfusion
, Correct Answer: D
Rationale: Palpable pulse during compressions with no pulse during pauses indicates effective CPR
generating forward blood flow, NOT ROSC. This is why we minimize interruptions. ROSC (A) would show
sustained pulse without compressions.
Q11: [SATA] Which factors reduce coronary perfusion pressure during CPR?
A. Lean on chest between compressions
B. Hyperventilation (>10 breaths/min)
C. Frequent rhythm/pulse checks
D. Incomplete chest recoil
E. Shallow compressions (<2 inches)
Correct Answer: A, B, C, D, E
Rationale: All listed factors reduce coronary perfusion pressure. Leaning (A) prevents diastolic filling;
hyperventilation (B) increases intrathoracic pressure; interruptions (C) stop perfusion; incomplete recoil
(D) reduces venous return; shallow compressions (E) generate inadequate pressure.
Q12: The AED detects a shockable rhythm and charges. What is the correct next step?
A. Clear the patient and deliver shock immediately
B. Resume CPR for 30 seconds then shock
C. Check for a pulse before shocking
D. Administer epinephrine first, then shock
Correct Answer: A
Rationale: For shockable rhythms (VF/pVT), deliver shock as soon as the defibrillator is charged and the
patient is cleared (ensuring no one is touching the patient). Do not delay for CPR (B), pulse check (C), or
medications (D).
Q13: You are alone and find an unresponsive adult who is not breathing normally. You have activated
the emergency response system. What is your next action?
A. Leave to get an AED immediately
B. Begin CPR with compressions
C. Give 2 rescue breaths first
D. Check for a pulse for 10 seconds
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: For lay rescuers, if an adult is unresponsive and not breathing normally, begin CPR starting
with compressions (C-A-B sequence). Do not delay for pulse check if not trained (D) or for breaths (C). If
alone without phone, leave to activate EMS and get AED after 2 minutes of CPR (adults).
Q14: Which statement about AED use in children is CORRECT?
A. Adult AED pads should never be used on children
B. Use pediatric dose attenuator or pediatric pads for children <8 years
