ATI RN Comprehensive Predictor Exam
(Latest 2026 NGN Update) Questions and
Ansẉers with
Expert-Verified Explanation 2025\2026
update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified Explanation
, Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood glucose 180 mg/dL
B. Presence of ketones in urine
C. Client reports thirst and frequent urination
D. Hemoglobin A1c 8.5%
Correct Answer: B. Presence of ketones in urine
Expert Explanation Ketones in urine indicate that the body is breaking down
fat for energy due to insufficient insulin, which can rapidly progress to diabetic
ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a life-threatening emergency characterized by
metabolic acidosis, hyperglycemia, and dehydration. Immediate intervention
includes administering insulin and IV fluids. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL is
elevated but not immediately critical in a newly diagnosed client; thirst and
frequent urination are expected symptoms of hyperglycemia; HbA1c reflects
average glucose over 3 months and is not an acute finding.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of
the following findings indicates a hemolytic reaction?
A. Urticaria and pruritus
B. Low back pain and dark urine
C. Fever and chills
D. Dyspnea and crackles
Correct Answer: B. Low back pain and dark urine
Expert Explanation Hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when recipient
antibodies attack donor RBCs. Classic signs include low back pain (due to
hemolysis in kidneys), dark urine (hemoglobinuria), fever, chills, and
hypotension. This is a medical emergency; stop transfusion immediately,
maintain IV line with saline, notify provider, and send blood bag and client
sample to lab. Urticaria indicates allergic reaction; fever/chills may be febrile
non-hemolytic; dyspnea/crackles suggest fluid overload or TRALI.
,3. A nurse is planning care for a client with major depressive disorder who is
starting phenelzine. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Broiled chicken
B. Cheddar cheese
C. Apple juice
D. White rice
Correct Answer: B. Cheddar cheese
Expert Explanation Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheeses (cheddar, blue cheese), cured meats,
fermented foods, and red wine can cause hypertensive crisis (severe headache,
hypertension, tachycardia, possible stroke). Clients must avoid these foods for
2 weeks after stopping MAOIs. Broiled chicken, apple juice, and white rice are
low in tyramine and safe.
4. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is reviewing lab results for a client at 28 weeks
gestation. Which finding should be reported to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
B. Platelets 140,000/mm³
C. Blood glucose 140 mg/dL 1 hour after 50g glucose load
D. White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
Correct Answer: C. Blood glucose 140 mg/dL 1 hour after 50g glucose load
Expert Explanation In gestational diabetes screening, a 1-hour glucose of
140 mg/dL or higher is abnormal and requires a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance
test. Normal pregnancy hemoglobin is 10-14 g/dL due to hemodilution;
platelets may be slightly low but >100,000 is acceptable; WBC count normally
rises in pregnancy (up to 16,000). The glucose result indicates possible
gestational diabetes, which needs further evaluation to prevent macrosomia,
neonatal hypoglycemia, and other complications.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after a
thyroidectomy. Which finding requires immediate action?
A. Client reports pain of 4 on a 0-10 scale
B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
C. Stridor on inspiration
D. Heart rate 88/min
, Correct Answer: C. Stridor on inspiration
Expert Explanation Stridor indicates airway obstruction, often from laryngeal
edema or hematoma compressing the trachea after thyroid surgery. This is a
life-threatening emergency. The nurse should immediately call for help, prepare
for possible intubation or emergency tracheostomy, and assess for neck
swelling. Pain, stable BP, and normal HR are expected post-op but do not
require immediate intervention over airway compromise.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement by the
client indicates understanding?
A. "I will take ibuprofen if I have a headache."
B. "I will eat more green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will get my blood tested regularly as scheduled."
D. "I will stop taking warfarin if I see bruising."
Correct Answer: C. "I will get my blood tested regularly as scheduled."
Expert Explanation Warfarin requires regular INR monitoring to maintain
therapeutic levels (usually 2-3 for most indications). Ibuprofen increases
bleeding risk and should be avoided. Green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K,
which antagonizes warfarin; consistent intake is okay but large changes affect
INR. Bruising is an expected side effect; stopping warfarin without provider
guidance risks thrombosis.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure who has crackles in the lung
bases, peripheral edema, and weight gain of 2 kg in 2 days. Which intervention
should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Administer furosemide IV
B. Restrict oral fluids to 1 L/day
C. Elevate legs above heart level
D. Teach low-sodium diet
Correct Answer: A. Administer furosemide IV
Expert Explanation The client shows signs of fluid overload (crackles,
edema, rapid weight gain). IV furosemide provides rapid diuresis to reduce
preload and relieve pulmonary congestion. While fluid restriction, leg elevation,
and diet teaching are important, they are not the first action in acute
decompensation. The priority is removing excess fluid to improve oxygenation.
(Latest 2026 NGN Update) Questions and
Ansẉers with
Expert-Verified Explanation 2025\2026
update
This Exam contains:
Guarantee passing score
Questions and Ansẉers
format set of multiple-choice
Expert-Verified Explanation
, Verified ẉith trusted textbooks
───────────────────────────────────────────────────────
─
1. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following findings requires immediate intervention?
A. Blood glucose 180 mg/dL
B. Presence of ketones in urine
C. Client reports thirst and frequent urination
D. Hemoglobin A1c 8.5%
Correct Answer: B. Presence of ketones in urine
Expert Explanation Ketones in urine indicate that the body is breaking down
fat for energy due to insufficient insulin, which can rapidly progress to diabetic
ketoacidosis (DKA). DKA is a life-threatening emergency characterized by
metabolic acidosis, hyperglycemia, and dehydration. Immediate intervention
includes administering insulin and IV fluids. Blood glucose of 180 mg/dL is
elevated but not immediately critical in a newly diagnosed client; thirst and
frequent urination are expected symptoms of hyperglycemia; HbA1c reflects
average glucose over 3 months and is not an acute finding.
2. A nurse is assessing a client who is receiving a blood transfusion. Which of
the following findings indicates a hemolytic reaction?
A. Urticaria and pruritus
B. Low back pain and dark urine
C. Fever and chills
D. Dyspnea and crackles
Correct Answer: B. Low back pain and dark urine
Expert Explanation Hemolytic transfusion reaction occurs when recipient
antibodies attack donor RBCs. Classic signs include low back pain (due to
hemolysis in kidneys), dark urine (hemoglobinuria), fever, chills, and
hypotension. This is a medical emergency; stop transfusion immediately,
maintain IV line with saline, notify provider, and send blood bag and client
sample to lab. Urticaria indicates allergic reaction; fever/chills may be febrile
non-hemolytic; dyspnea/crackles suggest fluid overload or TRALI.
,3. A nurse is planning care for a client with major depressive disorder who is
starting phenelzine. Which food should the nurse instruct the client to avoid?
A. Broiled chicken
B. Cheddar cheese
C. Apple juice
D. White rice
Correct Answer: B. Cheddar cheese
Expert Explanation Phenelzine is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI).
Tyramine-rich foods like aged cheeses (cheddar, blue cheese), cured meats,
fermented foods, and red wine can cause hypertensive crisis (severe headache,
hypertension, tachycardia, possible stroke). Clients must avoid these foods for
2 weeks after stopping MAOIs. Broiled chicken, apple juice, and white rice are
low in tyramine and safe.
4. A nurse in a prenatal clinic is reviewing lab results for a client at 28 weeks
gestation. Which finding should be reported to the provider?
A. Hemoglobin 11.2 g/dL
B. Platelets 140,000/mm³
C. Blood glucose 140 mg/dL 1 hour after 50g glucose load
D. White blood cell count 12,000/mm³
Correct Answer: C. Blood glucose 140 mg/dL 1 hour after 50g glucose load
Expert Explanation In gestational diabetes screening, a 1-hour glucose of
140 mg/dL or higher is abnormal and requires a 3-hour oral glucose tolerance
test. Normal pregnancy hemoglobin is 10-14 g/dL due to hemodilution;
platelets may be slightly low but >100,000 is acceptable; WBC count normally
rises in pregnancy (up to 16,000). The glucose result indicates possible
gestational diabetes, which needs further evaluation to prevent macrosomia,
neonatal hypoglycemia, and other complications.
5. A nurse is caring for a client who has just returned from the PACU after a
thyroidectomy. Which finding requires immediate action?
A. Client reports pain of 4 on a 0-10 scale
B. Blood pressure 110/70 mm Hg
C. Stridor on inspiration
D. Heart rate 88/min
, Correct Answer: C. Stridor on inspiration
Expert Explanation Stridor indicates airway obstruction, often from laryngeal
edema or hematoma compressing the trachea after thyroid surgery. This is a
life-threatening emergency. The nurse should immediately call for help, prepare
for possible intubation or emergency tracheostomy, and assess for neck
swelling. Pain, stable BP, and normal HR are expected post-op but do not
require immediate intervention over airway compromise.
6. A nurse is teaching a client about warfarin therapy. Which statement by the
client indicates understanding?
A. "I will take ibuprofen if I have a headache."
B. "I will eat more green leafy vegetables."
C. "I will get my blood tested regularly as scheduled."
D. "I will stop taking warfarin if I see bruising."
Correct Answer: C. "I will get my blood tested regularly as scheduled."
Expert Explanation Warfarin requires regular INR monitoring to maintain
therapeutic levels (usually 2-3 for most indications). Ibuprofen increases
bleeding risk and should be avoided. Green leafy vegetables contain vitamin K,
which antagonizes warfarin; consistent intake is okay but large changes affect
INR. Bruising is an expected side effect; stopping warfarin without provider
guidance risks thrombosis.
7. A nurse is assessing a client with heart failure who has crackles in the lung
bases, peripheral edema, and weight gain of 2 kg in 2 days. Which intervention
should the nurse anticipate first?
A. Administer furosemide IV
B. Restrict oral fluids to 1 L/day
C. Elevate legs above heart level
D. Teach low-sodium diet
Correct Answer: A. Administer furosemide IV
Expert Explanation The client shows signs of fluid overload (crackles,
edema, rapid weight gain). IV furosemide provides rapid diuresis to reduce
preload and relieve pulmonary congestion. While fluid restriction, leg elevation,
and diet teaching are important, they are not the first action in acute
decompensation. The priority is removing excess fluid to improve oxygenation.
