NUR 2513 MATERNAL-CHILD NURSING EXAM 1 2026/2027 |
75 Actual Questions and Verified Answers | Already Graded
A | Rasmussen | Pass Guaranteed
Antepartum Nursing: Caring for the Expectant Family
Q1: A patient at 8 weeks gestation asks which signs confirm pregnancy versus those
that just suggest it. Which explanation distinguishes presumptive, probable, and
positive signs?
A. All signs are equally reliable indicators
B. Presumptive (subjective: amenorrhea, nausea, fatigue); probable (objective: Hegar's
sign, Chadwick's sign, positive pregnancy test); positive (ultrasound visualization of
fetus, fetal heart tones auscultated, fetal movement felt by examiner) [CORRECT]
C. Only blood tests are reliable
D. Morning sickness is the only definite sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Presumptive signs are subjective symptoms experienced by woman.
Probable signs are objective findings on exam or tests that strongly suggest pregnancy
but could have other causes. Positive signs definitively confirm pregnancy by
demonstrating fetal presence. Not all equal (A), not only blood tests (C), and not only
morning sickness (D).
Q2: Which physiological change of pregnancy is caused by elevated progesterone?
A. Increased gastric motility
B. Smooth muscle relaxation causing decreased GI motility (constipation, reflux),
relaxation of ureters, and respiratory center stimulation (increased tidal volume)
[CORRECT]
C. Decreased tidal volume
D. Increased peristalsis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Progesterone causes smooth muscle relaxation throughout body: decreased
GI motility (constipation, heartburn), ureteral dilation (stasis, infection risk), and
,stimulates respiratory center (increased tidal volume, mild respiratory alkalosis). Not
increased motility (A), not decreased tidal volume (C), and not increased peristalsis (D).
Q3: A patient at 16 weeks asks when she should feel fetal movement. Which response
is accurate?
A. Movement should be felt at 8 weeks
B. Quickening (fetal movement felt by mother) typically occurs at 18-20 weeks for
primigravidas, 16-18 weeks for multigravidas; earlier in thinner women, later in those
with anterior placenta or obesity [CORRECT]
C. Movement is never felt until third trimester
D. Only doctors can feel movement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening varies by parity (earlier in multigravidas who recognize
sensation), maternal habitus (thinner women feel earlier), and placental location
(anterior placenta cushions sensation). Typically 18-20 weeks first pregnancy, 16-18
weeks subsequent. Not 8 weeks (A—too early), not never until third trimester (C), and
mothers do feel movement (D).
Q4: Which prenatal screening test is performed at 24-28 weeks gestation?
A. First trimester combined screening
B. Gestational diabetes screening (glucose challenge test or oral glucose tolerance test)
[CORRECT]
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Nuchal translucency screening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: GDM screening occurs universally at 24-28 weeks, or earlier if risk factors.
First trimester screening (A, D) occurs 11-14 weeks, and CVS (C) is first trimester
diagnostic test for genetic conditions. Timing is critical for appropriate screening.
Q5: A patient has a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT) with 145 mg/dL. Which
is the appropriate next step?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes immediately
B. Proceed to 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to confirm diagnosis; 2 or more
abnormal values needed for GDM diagnosis [CORRECT]
C. No further testing needed
, D. Start insulin immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive GCT (≥130-140 mg/dL depending on cutoff) requires 3-hour OGTT
for confirmation. OGTT requires fasting with glucose measurements at baseline, 1, 2,
and 3 hours. Two or more abnormal values confirm GDM. Not immediate diagnosis (A),
not no testing (C), and not immediate insulin (D—dietary management first line).
Q6: Which danger sign during pregnancy requires immediate reporting?
A. Mild ankle edema in evening
B. Severe headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain, or sudden swelling of
face/hands (possible preeclampsia); vaginal bleeding; decreased fetal movement; or
rupture of membranes [CORRECT]
C. Occasional heartburn after spicy food
D. Mild fatigue in first trimester
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Danger signs indicate potential life-threatening complications: preeclampsia
(headache, visual changes, RUQ/epigastric pain, edema), abruption/preterm labor
(bleeding), fetal compromise (decreased movement), or infection risk (PROM). Mild
dependent edema (A), occasional heartburn (C), and first trimester fatigue (D) are
normal.
Q7: Which immunization is recommended during every pregnancy?
A. MMR vaccine
B. Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) at 27-36 weeks gestation to provide passive
immunity to newborn against pertussis; influenza if during flu season; COVID-19 per
current guidance [CORRECT]
C. Varicella vaccine
D. HPV vaccine series
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy at 27-36 weeks (optimally
27-32) to maximize maternal antibody response and transplacental transfer protecting
infant until first vaccines. MMR (A) and varicella (C) are live vaccines contraindicated in
pregnancy. HPV (D) is not recommended during pregnancy.
75 Actual Questions and Verified Answers | Already Graded
A | Rasmussen | Pass Guaranteed
Antepartum Nursing: Caring for the Expectant Family
Q1: A patient at 8 weeks gestation asks which signs confirm pregnancy versus those
that just suggest it. Which explanation distinguishes presumptive, probable, and
positive signs?
A. All signs are equally reliable indicators
B. Presumptive (subjective: amenorrhea, nausea, fatigue); probable (objective: Hegar's
sign, Chadwick's sign, positive pregnancy test); positive (ultrasound visualization of
fetus, fetal heart tones auscultated, fetal movement felt by examiner) [CORRECT]
C. Only blood tests are reliable
D. Morning sickness is the only definite sign
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Presumptive signs are subjective symptoms experienced by woman.
Probable signs are objective findings on exam or tests that strongly suggest pregnancy
but could have other causes. Positive signs definitively confirm pregnancy by
demonstrating fetal presence. Not all equal (A), not only blood tests (C), and not only
morning sickness (D).
Q2: Which physiological change of pregnancy is caused by elevated progesterone?
A. Increased gastric motility
B. Smooth muscle relaxation causing decreased GI motility (constipation, reflux),
relaxation of ureters, and respiratory center stimulation (increased tidal volume)
[CORRECT]
C. Decreased tidal volume
D. Increased peristalsis
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Progesterone causes smooth muscle relaxation throughout body: decreased
GI motility (constipation, heartburn), ureteral dilation (stasis, infection risk), and
,stimulates respiratory center (increased tidal volume, mild respiratory alkalosis). Not
increased motility (A), not decreased tidal volume (C), and not increased peristalsis (D).
Q3: A patient at 16 weeks asks when she should feel fetal movement. Which response
is accurate?
A. Movement should be felt at 8 weeks
B. Quickening (fetal movement felt by mother) typically occurs at 18-20 weeks for
primigravidas, 16-18 weeks for multigravidas; earlier in thinner women, later in those
with anterior placenta or obesity [CORRECT]
C. Movement is never felt until third trimester
D. Only doctors can feel movement
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Quickening varies by parity (earlier in multigravidas who recognize
sensation), maternal habitus (thinner women feel earlier), and placental location
(anterior placenta cushions sensation). Typically 18-20 weeks first pregnancy, 16-18
weeks subsequent. Not 8 weeks (A—too early), not never until third trimester (C), and
mothers do feel movement (D).
Q4: Which prenatal screening test is performed at 24-28 weeks gestation?
A. First trimester combined screening
B. Gestational diabetes screening (glucose challenge test or oral glucose tolerance test)
[CORRECT]
C. Chorionic villus sampling
D. Nuchal translucency screening
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: GDM screening occurs universally at 24-28 weeks, or earlier if risk factors.
First trimester screening (A, D) occurs 11-14 weeks, and CVS (C) is first trimester
diagnostic test for genetic conditions. Timing is critical for appropriate screening.
Q5: A patient has a positive 1-hour glucose challenge test (GCT) with 145 mg/dL. Which
is the appropriate next step?
A. Diagnose gestational diabetes immediately
B. Proceed to 3-hour oral glucose tolerance test (OGTT) to confirm diagnosis; 2 or more
abnormal values needed for GDM diagnosis [CORRECT]
C. No further testing needed
, D. Start insulin immediately
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Positive GCT (≥130-140 mg/dL depending on cutoff) requires 3-hour OGTT
for confirmation. OGTT requires fasting with glucose measurements at baseline, 1, 2,
and 3 hours. Two or more abnormal values confirm GDM. Not immediate diagnosis (A),
not no testing (C), and not immediate insulin (D—dietary management first line).
Q6: Which danger sign during pregnancy requires immediate reporting?
A. Mild ankle edema in evening
B. Severe headache, visual disturbances, epigastric pain, or sudden swelling of
face/hands (possible preeclampsia); vaginal bleeding; decreased fetal movement; or
rupture of membranes [CORRECT]
C. Occasional heartburn after spicy food
D. Mild fatigue in first trimester
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Danger signs indicate potential life-threatening complications: preeclampsia
(headache, visual changes, RUQ/epigastric pain, edema), abruption/preterm labor
(bleeding), fetal compromise (decreased movement), or infection risk (PROM). Mild
dependent edema (A), occasional heartburn (C), and first trimester fatigue (D) are
normal.
Q7: Which immunization is recommended during every pregnancy?
A. MMR vaccine
B. Tdap (tetanus, diphtheria, pertussis) at 27-36 weeks gestation to provide passive
immunity to newborn against pertussis; influenza if during flu season; COVID-19 per
current guidance [CORRECT]
C. Varicella vaccine
D. HPV vaccine series
Correct Answer: B
Rationale: Tdap is recommended during each pregnancy at 27-36 weeks (optimally
27-32) to maximize maternal antibody response and transplacental transfer protecting
infant until first vaccines. MMR (A) and varicella (C) are live vaccines contraindicated in
pregnancy. HPV (D) is not recommended during pregnancy.
