1
NSG 520 (HU) Pathophysiology & Pharmacology
Final Exam (Qns & Ans) 2026.
General Principles & Foundational Concepts (Q1-10)
1. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'pharmacodynamics'?
A. The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
B. The study of the effects of drugs on the body
C. The study of drug interactions
D. The study of drug toxicity
Answer: B. The study of the effects of drugs on the body
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics involves the study of how drugs affect the body, including their
mechanisms of action and therapeutic effects. Pharmacokinetics (A) is the study of drug movement
through the body.
2. The process by which a drug is metabolized and eliminated from the body is known as:
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Answer: D. Excretion
Rationale: Excretion is the process by which the body eliminates drugs and their metabolites, primarily
through the kidneys.
3. Which of the following best describes why selective toxicity of antimicrobial drugs is important?
A. It ensures the drug is absorbed rapidly
B. It indicates the ability of an antibiotic to kill or suppress microbial pathogens without causing injury to
the host
C. It prevents drug resistance from developing
D. It allows the drug to be administered orally
Answer: B. It indicates the ability of an antibiotic to kill or suppress microbial pathogens without
causing injury to the host
Rationale: Selective toxicity is the principle that antimicrobial drugs should harm the pathogen without
harming the host.
4. True or False: Narrow-spectrum antibiotics are generally preferred over broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Answer: True
Rationale: Narrow-spectrum drugs are generally preferred to broad-spectrum drugs because they are
less likely to disrupt normal flora and cause superinfections.
,2
5. Which of the following physiologic changes in the older adult cause alterations in drug absorption?
(Select all that apply)
A. Increased gastric pH
B. Decreased GI motility
C. Increased body fat
D. Delayed gastric emptying
E. Decreased cardiac output
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Increased gastric pH, decreased GI motility, and delayed gastric emptying all affect drug
absorption in older adults. Increased body fat affects distribution, not absorption.
6. True or False: From early adulthood on, there is a gradual, progressive decline in organ function.
Answer: True
Rationale: Organ function gradually declines beginning in early adulthood, affecting drug
pharmacokinetics in older adults.
7. Multiple and severe illnesses in older adults are known as:
Answer: Comorbidities
Rationale: Comorbidities refer to the presence of two or more chronic conditions simultaneously, which is
common in older adults and complicates pharmacotherapy.
8. Which of the following is a core principle of pathophysiology?
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Etiology
C. Pharmacodynamics
D. Selective toxicity
Answer: B. Etiology
Rationale: Etiology refers to the cause of a disease (genetic, infectious, environmental, idiopathic,
iatrogenic). It is a core principle of pathophysiology.
9. The body's second line of defense includes the nonspecific processes of phagocytosis and
inflammation.
Answer: True
Rationale: The second line of defense includes nonspecific mechanisms such as phagocytosis and
inflammation that respond to tissue injury or infection.
10. The __________ effect occurs when a patient experiences therapeutic benefits from an inactive
substance due to their belief in its efficacy.
Answer: Placebo
Rationale: The placebo effect is a psychological phenomenon where patients experience real
improvements in their condition due to their belief in the treatment.
Immunology & Inflammation (Q11-25)
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11. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of chronic inflammation?
A. Rapid onset and short duration
B. Presence of neutrophils
C. Prolonged duration with tissue destruction and repair
D. Absence of immune response
Answer: C. Prolonged duration with tissue destruction and repair
Rationale: Chronic inflammation is characterized by a prolonged duration, ongoing tissue destruction,
and repair processes. Acute inflammation is rapid onset with neutrophils.
12. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include: (Select all that apply)
A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandins
C. Leukotrienes
D. Insulin
E. Cytokines
Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and cytokines are all chemical mediators released
during inflammation. Insulin is not involved in the inflammatory response.
13. True or False: Erythema and warmth are systemic effects of severe inflammation.
Answer: False
Rationale: Erythema (redness) and warmth are local signs of inflammation, not systemic effects.
Systemic effects include fever, leukocytosis, and malaise.
14. Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Addison's disease
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: B. Cushing's syndrome
Rationale: Long-term glucocorticoid use can lead to Cushing's syndrome, characterized by moon face,
buffalo hump, weight gain, and hyperglycemia.
15. True or False: Corticosteroids are always indicated for treating chronic inflammation.
Answer: False
Rationale: While corticosteroids can reduce inflammation, they have significant side effects and are not
appropriate for all inflammatory conditions.
16. __________ are nonspecific agents that protect uninfected cells against viruses.
Answer: Interferons
Rationale: Interferons are proteins that protect uninfected cells from viral infection by interfering with
viral replication.
17. A ____________ is a small mass of cells with a necrotic center and covered by connective tissue.
, 4
Answer: Granuloma
Rationale: A granuloma is a collection of macrophages, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts that forms in
response to chronic inflammation, often with a necrotic center.
18. Fever results from a signal to the thalamus.
Answer: False
Rationale: Fever results from a signal to the hypothalamus, which acts as the body's thermostat, not the
thalamus.
19. What is a mechanism to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level?
A. Shivering
B. Vasodilation and sweating
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Increased metabolic rate
Answer: B. Vasodilation and sweating
Rationale: The body reduces fever through vasodilation (bringing blood to the surface) and sweating
(evaporative cooling).
20. Allergic responses involve antibodies of the immunoglobulin E (IgE) class binding to __________
receptors, causing release of inflammatory chemicals including histamine, serotonin, and
leukotrienes.
A. Mast cell
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil
Answer: C. Basophil
Rationale: IgE antibodies bind to basophil receptors, causing degranulation and release of histamine,
serotonin, and leukotrienes.
21. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of interferon alfa?
A. Blocks viral entry into cells
B. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
C. Inhibits fungal ergosterol synthesis
D. Blocks viral protein synthesis only
Answer: A. Blocks viral entry into cells
Rationale: Interferon alfa has multiple effects on the viral replication cycle, including blocking viral entry
into cells, synthesis of viral mRNA and proteins, and viral assembly and release.
22. True or False: Interferon alpha is available orally.
Answer: False
Rationale: Interferon alpha is administered parenterally (subcutaneous or intramuscular injection), not
orally, because it would be degraded in the GI tract.
NSG 520 (HU) Pathophysiology & Pharmacology
Final Exam (Qns & Ans) 2026.
General Principles & Foundational Concepts (Q1-10)
1. Which of the following best describes the concept of 'pharmacodynamics'?
A. The study of drug absorption, distribution, metabolism, and excretion
B. The study of the effects of drugs on the body
C. The study of drug interactions
D. The study of drug toxicity
Answer: B. The study of the effects of drugs on the body
Rationale: Pharmacodynamics involves the study of how drugs affect the body, including their
mechanisms of action and therapeutic effects. Pharmacokinetics (A) is the study of drug movement
through the body.
2. The process by which a drug is metabolized and eliminated from the body is known as:
A. Absorption
B. Distribution
C. Metabolism
D. Excretion
Answer: D. Excretion
Rationale: Excretion is the process by which the body eliminates drugs and their metabolites, primarily
through the kidneys.
3. Which of the following best describes why selective toxicity of antimicrobial drugs is important?
A. It ensures the drug is absorbed rapidly
B. It indicates the ability of an antibiotic to kill or suppress microbial pathogens without causing injury to
the host
C. It prevents drug resistance from developing
D. It allows the drug to be administered orally
Answer: B. It indicates the ability of an antibiotic to kill or suppress microbial pathogens without
causing injury to the host
Rationale: Selective toxicity is the principle that antimicrobial drugs should harm the pathogen without
harming the host.
4. True or False: Narrow-spectrum antibiotics are generally preferred over broad-spectrum antibiotics.
Answer: True
Rationale: Narrow-spectrum drugs are generally preferred to broad-spectrum drugs because they are
less likely to disrupt normal flora and cause superinfections.
,2
5. Which of the following physiologic changes in the older adult cause alterations in drug absorption?
(Select all that apply)
A. Increased gastric pH
B. Decreased GI motility
C. Increased body fat
D. Delayed gastric emptying
E. Decreased cardiac output
Answer: A, B, D
Rationale: Increased gastric pH, decreased GI motility, and delayed gastric emptying all affect drug
absorption in older adults. Increased body fat affects distribution, not absorption.
6. True or False: From early adulthood on, there is a gradual, progressive decline in organ function.
Answer: True
Rationale: Organ function gradually declines beginning in early adulthood, affecting drug
pharmacokinetics in older adults.
7. Multiple and severe illnesses in older adults are known as:
Answer: Comorbidities
Rationale: Comorbidities refer to the presence of two or more chronic conditions simultaneously, which is
common in older adults and complicates pharmacotherapy.
8. Which of the following is a core principle of pathophysiology?
A. Pharmacokinetics
B. Etiology
C. Pharmacodynamics
D. Selective toxicity
Answer: B. Etiology
Rationale: Etiology refers to the cause of a disease (genetic, infectious, environmental, idiopathic,
iatrogenic). It is a core principle of pathophysiology.
9. The body's second line of defense includes the nonspecific processes of phagocytosis and
inflammation.
Answer: True
Rationale: The second line of defense includes nonspecific mechanisms such as phagocytosis and
inflammation that respond to tissue injury or infection.
10. The __________ effect occurs when a patient experiences therapeutic benefits from an inactive
substance due to their belief in its efficacy.
Answer: Placebo
Rationale: The placebo effect is a psychological phenomenon where patients experience real
improvements in their condition due to their belief in the treatment.
Immunology & Inflammation (Q11-25)
,3
11. Which of the following is a primary characteristic of chronic inflammation?
A. Rapid onset and short duration
B. Presence of neutrophils
C. Prolonged duration with tissue destruction and repair
D. Absence of immune response
Answer: C. Prolonged duration with tissue destruction and repair
Rationale: Chronic inflammation is characterized by a prolonged duration, ongoing tissue destruction,
and repair processes. Acute inflammation is rapid onset with neutrophils.
12. Chemical mediators released during the inflammatory response include: (Select all that apply)
A. Histamine
B. Prostaglandins
C. Leukotrienes
D. Insulin
E. Cytokines
Answer: A, B, C, E
Rationale: Histamine, prostaglandins, leukotrienes, and cytokines are all chemical mediators released
during inflammation. Insulin is not involved in the inflammatory response.
13. True or False: Erythema and warmth are systemic effects of severe inflammation.
Answer: False
Rationale: Erythema (redness) and warmth are local signs of inflammation, not systemic effects.
Systemic effects include fever, leukocytosis, and malaise.
14. Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop:
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Cushing's syndrome
C. Addison's disease
D. Hyperthyroidism
Answer: B. Cushing's syndrome
Rationale: Long-term glucocorticoid use can lead to Cushing's syndrome, characterized by moon face,
buffalo hump, weight gain, and hyperglycemia.
15. True or False: Corticosteroids are always indicated for treating chronic inflammation.
Answer: False
Rationale: While corticosteroids can reduce inflammation, they have significant side effects and are not
appropriate for all inflammatory conditions.
16. __________ are nonspecific agents that protect uninfected cells against viruses.
Answer: Interferons
Rationale: Interferons are proteins that protect uninfected cells from viral infection by interfering with
viral replication.
17. A ____________ is a small mass of cells with a necrotic center and covered by connective tissue.
, 4
Answer: Granuloma
Rationale: A granuloma is a collection of macrophages, lymphocytes, and fibroblasts that forms in
response to chronic inflammation, often with a necrotic center.
18. Fever results from a signal to the thalamus.
Answer: False
Rationale: Fever results from a signal to the hypothalamus, which acts as the body's thermostat, not the
thalamus.
19. What is a mechanism to bring an elevated body temperature down to the normal level?
A. Shivering
B. Vasodilation and sweating
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Increased metabolic rate
Answer: B. Vasodilation and sweating
Rationale: The body reduces fever through vasodilation (bringing blood to the surface) and sweating
(evaporative cooling).
20. Allergic responses involve antibodies of the immunoglobulin E (IgE) class binding to __________
receptors, causing release of inflammatory chemicals including histamine, serotonin, and
leukotrienes.
A. Mast cell
B. Neutrophil
C. Basophil
D. Eosinophil
Answer: C. Basophil
Rationale: IgE antibodies bind to basophil receptors, causing degranulation and release of histamine,
serotonin, and leukotrienes.
21. Which of the following is a mechanism of action of interferon alfa?
A. Blocks viral entry into cells
B. Inhibits bacterial cell wall synthesis
C. Inhibits fungal ergosterol synthesis
D. Blocks viral protein synthesis only
Answer: A. Blocks viral entry into cells
Rationale: Interferon alfa has multiple effects on the viral replication cycle, including blocking viral entry
into cells, synthesis of viral mRNA and proteins, and viral assembly and release.
22. True or False: Interferon alpha is available orally.
Answer: False
Rationale: Interferon alpha is administered parenterally (subcutaneous or intramuscular injection), not
orally, because it would be degraded in the GI tract.
